Morally Pure

1Ti 5:22 Lay hands suddenly on no man, neither be partaker of other men's sins: keep thyself pure.

HP: Many things may be in question, but this one thing I know. No man can be said to be keeping himself 'pure' in any moral/ Scriptural sense that is practicing sin on daily basis.
If words means anything, ' pure' is without fault, blameless, without sin. Sin is blameworthy and no one can keep themselves 'pure' while practicing sin.

 

This do. Take up thy Bible and read. Read the First Epistle of Paul to Timotheus, chapter five. Upon finishing thy reading commence meditating on the twenty-second verse. It followeth after the twenty-first. Be thou careful in thy study. The verse doth not say what thou thinketh it saith!

 

.....but this one thing I know. No man can be said to be keeping himself 'pure' in any moral/ Scriptural sense that is practicing sin on daily basis.:thumbsup:

 

Our discussion centered around 1Tim.5:22.
That verse does not even come close to teaching that.
You may or may not be right. If right, provide Scriptural evidence. You may not use 1Tim.5:22. It has nothing to do with your premise.

 

But I do believe that verse and any other that uses the word 'pure' in a clearly moral sense as does that verse, is speaking of being blameless, morally without fault, righteous, sinless. I take nothing out of context nor take away from the intended context of the author. :thumbsup:

 

Sorry, no dice. You ignore context; you ignore the meaning of the word.

Phil.3:20 "for our conversation is in heaven"
What does conversation mean, and how do you know?
--Just an example.

 

.....but this one thing I know. No man can be said to be keeping himself 'pure' in any moral/ Scriptural sense that is practicing sin on daily basis.:thumbsup:

 

Previously you were all gung-ho about using Jamieson, Faucett and Brown, but now he is "just another opinion" that you don't respect at all. What has changed your mind about these respected scholars?

Thayer wrote a lexicon, a dictionary. It gives meanings of words, but not in the contexts in which they are used such as the references that I gave you.

himself free from the sin (of others). That is the meaning. Read the context.

The more I study the more I am convinced of its meaning--free from the sin of others.

"Having therefore...."
As it is said, Whenever you see a therefore look before to see why-fore the therefore is there for.
Did you do that?

Two verse before 7:1 we find written:
(2Co 6:17) Wherefore come out from among them, and be ye separate, saith the Lord, and touch not the unclean thing; and I will receive you,

The cleansing is a coming out or separating oneself from the sinful practices of others. You must read chapter six to get a good idea of this.
The perfecting of holiness is in a present continuous action. It doesn't happen all at once. It is a maturing process.

 

What is sad is that man does not have to "practice" sin...he is a natural.

God bless.

 

A "natural," I might add...that seeks to be a "neutral."

God bless.

 

Paul said, "It is no longer I that live, but Christ that liveth within me."

 

That should be a natural for believers, not a nuetral position to take or leave alone.

 

And again we see in the believer's life an accomplishment of the Spirit of God...right?

If it were natural, why would instruction such as this...


Colossians 3

1If ye then be risen with Christ, seek those things which are above, where Christ sitteth on the right hand of God.

2Set your affection on things above, not on things on the earth.


5Mortify therefore your members which are upon the earth; fornication, uncleanness, inordinate affection, evil concupiscence, and covetousness, which is idolatry:

6For which things' sake the wrath of God cometh on the children of disobedience:

7In the which ye also walked some time, when ye lived in them.

8But now ye also put off all these; anger, wrath, malice, blasphemy, filthy communication out of your mouth.

9Lie not one to another, seeing that ye have put off the old man with his deeds;

10And have put on the new man, which is renewed in knowledge after the image of him that created him:

This is written to believers, is it not?

Good night...and,

God bless.

 

That is red herring! Nobody is suggesting that any Christian PRACTICES sin on a daily basis.

Again, you and Jerry deny other fundemental Biblical definitions of sin. Sin is not merely intentional transgression of God's Law (although that is one definition of sin). Your red herring "practices sin on a daily basis" implies willful trangression.

God's law is also violating unintentionally by

1. Omission - "come short of the glory of God"
2. Ignorance -
3. Whatsoever is not of faith is sin

Still neither you or Jerry have addressed the fact that Christ commanded his followers to love the Lord God with 100% of your being 100% of the time.

Are you seriously going to say you keep that command consistently day in and day out for "long periods of time"?????

Again, we are to keep ourselves pure from other men's sin's and from all sin - that is our aim, goal, desire and to strive for anything less is simply not acceptable but that does not mean we attain that goal any more than Paul says he did in Philip. 3:12-14

12 Not as though I had already attained, either were already perfect: but I follow after, if that I may apprehend that for which also I am apprehended of Christ Jesus.
13 Brethren, I count not myself to have apprehended: but this one thing I do, forgetting those things which are behind, and reaching forth unto those things which are before,
14 I press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling of God in Christ Jesus.

Paul deals explicitly and directly with the very issue you are debating. He explicitly denies he has attained to perfection. He clearly states he is present tense following after that goal and present tense reaching forth toward that goal but has not yet attained that goal.

In contrast, Paul is immature compared to you two, as you both claim you not only can but have attained that goal of perfection and do so for long periods of time.

 

HP: If sinning everyday in thought word and deed is not practicing sin, there is not a herring alive that is red.
:thumbsup:

 

If you don't sin everyday as some profess, how long is it between the times you do sin? Every other day or so? Maybe twice or so a week? Just how long do you live 'sinless' between sin, on an average of course? If you never have a time of being sinless, how is that not practicing sin? You tell me what I am to think.