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My dog ate my BAGD!

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by Pete Richert, Aug 24, 2003.

  1. Pastor Larry

    Pastor Larry <b>Moderator</b>
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    Again, you laugh at lies. These men have yet to show one place where our side is in error. We have shown dozens of places where they are. We have shown places where they contradict Scripture, both in content and manner. We have shown places where they lie about the facts. We have shown places where they lie about their opponents. These are men who are dividing the church of the living God over their own personal problems. They do not offer one word from God to support their position (because they do not have one). They offer only their own, ill-formed, and unthought through positions. It is a travesty that unthinking and immature believers are trapped in their web of deceit. A deacon and I were lamenting this very fact this morning at our men's breakfast and Bible study. What a shame it is ...
     
  2. RaptureReady

    RaptureReady New Member

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    I was sitting here trying to think of things to say against you non-KJB believers and realize that it will not do me any good. I will just have to pray that the Holy Spirit will open your eyes and see that God has preserved his word in one English Bible. With that said, I'm curious to learn how you all believe the other versions. I know that it may have be posted before, but please tell me again. Which version of the Bible is correct and by what means do you have to prove it?
     
  3. Sherrie

    Sherrie New Member

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    Why?


    This is the statement that is wrong.

    God Bless
    Sherrie
     
  4. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Round and round we go...

    It's not a version but the text of the original language.

    In my case (choosing by faith) it is the Traditional Text (modernly called the Textus Receptus but known by other names) which was the text of choice for the the Church for 15 centuries.

    For me, this is the Word of God.

    I can't prove it but I hold it in my hands as the preserved Word of God by faith.

    Dear brother You CANNOT prove your position either.

    Also you need to deal with which KJV (1611-1769) and/or Oxford/Cambridge Editions.

    How many differences does it take to make things "not the same"? ONE.

    HankD
     
  5. Pastor Larry

    Pastor Larry <b>Moderator</b>
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    Not only that ... God has preserved his word in other English Bibles as well. The Holy Spirit will only open ones eyes to the truth, not to error. To pray that the Holy Spirit would contradict the precious word of God is a hopeless prayer at best.

    What do you mean? Why would you not believe a faithful translation??

    A version is correct when it accurately translates the original language texts. Correctness is measured by that standard, not by the standard of the words of men such as Ruckman, Gipp, and other false teachers. That is the major error. You have set their words as the standard and in so doing have chosen a wrong measuring stick. As the KJV translators admitted, any faithful translation (yea even the meanest translation) is the word of God. To deny that is to deny the truth of Scripture and to deny the words of the KJV translators that you trust so much.

    Rather than trying to find something to say against those of us who believe God's word, why not devote the time to learning the truth about this matter?
     
  6. Pete Richert

    Pete Richert New Member

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    I am afraid you have over simplified, and part of the problem with textual issues is that people use names for things that are different.

    First off, the names commonly used as all the same thing are Traditional text, textus Receptus, byzantine text, majority text, etc.

    The is no ONE manuscript or text the church used. There were thousands and they all had slight differences. The majority of them (all of a similar time period and location) followed certain patters in variants (though they were not all alike . . . obviously) and this became known as the byzantine family or text type. Then in the early 16th centuray Erasmus took 9 of these manuscripts and did some textual critisism (you see, he had to pick variants because the nine weren't all the same, to people get that?) and came up with the first printed version of the Greek. He then made four more additions because he wasn't satisfied each time he had the text the way he wanted it. This cause was carried on by Stephanus, then Beza, then others, each doing more textual critisism. It wasn't until about the third addition of Beza text that this paticular string of printed texts were called the textus receptus. And they still made changes in new additions. If you want to claim you believe in the tectus receptus, you have to tell me which one.

    Let me say that again, IF YOU WANT TO CLAIM YOU BELIEVE IN THE TEXTUS RECEPTUS, YOU WILL HAVE TO TELL ME WHICH ONE.

    The tectus receptus for the most part follows the pattern of the byzantin text family, but obviously since each manuscript is different (and each of the 15 or so editions of the Textus Receptus are different) then these two things ARE NOT THE SAME. If the Textus Receptus were the same thing as the byzantin family, there would be NO 1 John 5:7 because it is not supported in the byzantine family nor in the first two editions of the TR because Erasmus did not think it was original. It was in NO greek manuscript at the time, just the Latin Vulgate. And since Erasmus was Catholic he was under a lot of pressure.

    Then there is the majority text. The majority text is the text where two guys simply counted every manuscript and every reading variant that had the most support was included. 1 John 5:7 is NOT in the majority text as it is out numbered 5200 to 1, the 1 fake manuscirpt that was written in England to force Erasmus to put it in his printed Greek editions (he said if a single Greek manuscipt could be found with it, he would put it in, a wholla, all of a sudden one is found in England and looks mysteriously new).

    The TR is NOT the text of the church for 15th centuries, if that could be proved there would be no debate. That is the very debate itself. Since the earliest manuscripts do not follow the TR, then the debate is certainly a real one. You can claim that no Byzantine family text from early on exists because they were destroyed in use and the other do exist because they were "thrown in the trash pile", but such is pure speculation and certainly isn't a proof.

    So in conclusion,

    The TR is NOT the byzantine family
    the TR is NOT the majority text (2000+ differences)
    The byzantine familly is NOT the majority Text
    etc

    Okay, hopefully this will clear it up and we won't have to read this again on this board for the 7*7*77*777*7777 time.
     
  7. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    Matthew 18:21-22 (KJV1769)

    Then came Peter to him, and said, Lord,
    how oft shall my brother sin against me,
    and I forgive him? till seven times?
    22 Jesus saith unto him, I say not unto thee,
    Until seven times: but, Until seventy times seven. "

    [​IMG]

    Matthew 18:21-22 (nRSV)

    Then Peter came and said to him, "Lord,
    if another member of the church sins against me,
    how often should I forgive? As many as seven times?"
    22 Jesus said to him, "Not seven times,
    but, I tell you, seventy-seven times.

    [​IMG]
     
  8. RaptureReady

    RaptureReady New Member

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    But since the originals are lost, how can that happen?
     
  9. RaptureReady

    RaptureReady New Member

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    This is what I have trouble with, was not the originals written in Greek and Hebrew? If they were, wouldn't God know that the language of today would be English and provide us with his perfect word? Another question is, is God's word perfect?
     
  10. RaptureReady

    RaptureReady New Member

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    Question. Why does the NRSV have "member of the church" when brother can mean literal or figurative? Are we not to forgive or literal brother the same way?
     
  11. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    HomeBound: "Are we not to forgive or literal brother the same way?"

    Corrected for English:
    Are we not to forgive our literal brother the same way?

    The two versions mean the same thing
    using different words.
    Of course, we are to forgive our literal
    brother.
    And i forgive you, figurative brother
    for offensive use of the English Language.
    [​IMG]
     
  12. RaptureReady

    RaptureReady New Member

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    They do not mean the same thing. The KJB says "brother" and the NRSV says "member of the church." The NRSV does not like to forgive the literal brother, why is that? BTW, thanks for the grammar lesson professor :rolleyes: :rolleyes:
     
  13. Pete Richert

    Pete Richert New Member

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    I think the NRSV translation "membor of the church" is a poor one.
     
  14. RaptureReady

    RaptureReady New Member

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    I agree. It should not even be labeled God's word.
     
  15. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    I agree.
    It is not an error translation though. [​IMG]
     
  16. mioque

    mioque New Member

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    "was not the originals written in Greek and Hebrew? If they were, wouldn't God know that the language of today would be English and provide us with his perfect word?"
    Actually the language of today isn't english. English simply is one of the languages that is used at the moment. There are several different versions of English, sometimes the same word means diffrent things in English depending on the version of English used.
     
  17. Forever settled in heaven

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    I agree. It should not even be labeled God's word. </font>[/QUOTE]but if it were the KJB that did it, wldn't it be dismissed as a mere "typo" or printer's error?

    "membor"! [​IMG]
     
  18. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Dear homebound and others,

    I choose The New Testament in the Original Greek according to the text followed in the Authorised Version F.H.A Scrivener, 1894.

    According to the publisher the text is a compendium (my word) of the Stephanus, Beza and Elzivirs text but follows the Beza 1598 text as the primary authority. It is the Greek text (99 44/100th) underlying the AV.

    It is my choice, others have theirs. I have no problem with that. Even with the Wescott and Hort 1881 Greek Text which holds Aleph/B as greater authority than the TR.

    I disagree with their theory (W&H - older is better, shorter is better).

    But that is as far as it goes. I don't enter into strife with those who do agree with them, and I don't call my brethren apostates who use the WH/Aleph/B based texts.

    In fact in multitudes of places some of the MVs are more accurate and faithful to the text than the KJV because the English is modernised and/or a KJV weak translation of a verse is strengthened.

    In the spirit of the KJV translators and the honor they gave to the versions of their day, I can call the NIV the Word of God. I have it along with several others and very often I do verse comparisons (again in the Spirit of the KJV translators) to find the "sense of the Scriptures". Yes I have taken Greek and Hebrew, but often the MVs show a keen insight in the choice of an English word or phrase over the older versions.

    Don't cut yourself off from those who see the Scriptures as infallible and inerrant but use the MVs, it is not in your best interest.

    IMO.

    HankD
     
  19. Pete Richert

    Pete Richert New Member

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    More people on earth speak Mandarin Chinese then English.
     
  20. Scott J

    Scott J Active Member
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    This is what I have trouble with, was not the originals written in Greek and Hebrew? If they were, wouldn't God know that the language of today would be English and provide us with his perfect word?</font>[/QUOTE] And this is what I have trouble with... Why do you persist in questioning God's providence? Why is this your question instead of: "Why didn't God leave us with a common language?" or "Why doesn't God miraculously give all Christians the ability to read Greek and Hebrew?" or "Why do we need the written Word of God when God could have just revealed everything to us directly and avoided all of this confusion?"

    God did it the way He saw fit... which included providentially preserving over 5000 mss that all vary with each other and giving men at various times and places the wisdom and understanding to accurately translate the Bible.
    Yes but Ruckman, Gipp, et al. are not. Where does the Word of God teach KJVOnlyism? IT DOESN'T. Pastor Larry has proven on several occasions that the Bible contradicts KJVOnlyism.

    BTW, perfect has numerous meanings. The only one applicable to a translation is "having all that is requisite to its nature and kind." The KJV is not lacking nor is the NKJV nor is the NASB nor is the WEB...

    If you or any of your heroes can demonstrate that an MV is missing a doctrine included in the originals then you will have finally made your case. But I am confident that you cannot or else you would have long before now.
     
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