Perfect children

I am accepting what the scripture says and not trying to change it as you arew doing. I keep showing you and you keep dowing an end run. All have sinned. That is what is says.

 

"In the day thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die."
Was that a law (command) or not?
The Mosaic "law" was 10 commandments, often referred to as "The Law."
The words are synonymous in scripture.
Did Adam and Eve have a law to keep?

 

That is the written law. The law of God is spiritual. The written law was given to order to show you that you are transgressing the spiritual law which is and was.

In Galatians when discussing whether inheritance comes by works of the law or by promise, Paul says the written law was added 430 years after the promise was given because of transgressions. Man is a physical being made from the dust of the ground subject to death and rot. That is how the begotten son of God came subject to death and rot, to pay the penalty that brought death and rot, sin the transgression of the spiritual law.

Then the man who came in the flesh subject to death and rot would be resurrected from the dead by the God who had beget him as a new man spiritual eternal not subject to death and rot made to be fit to be subject to the spiritual law of God that in within him. Jesus is the firstborn from the dead as a spiritual man.

And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul;
The last Adam a quickening spirit. Howbeit that not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual.

This chapter is about the resurrection of man from the dead Jesus the man child of God himself being the firstfruits thereof. He came as his figure the first man Adam, afterward, after the resurrection what was planted as a living soul was raised a quickening spirit. Jesus has the preeminence of how man becomes spirit born son of the living God.

But if the Spirit of him (God the Father) that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he (God the Father) that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his (God the Father) Spirit that dwelleth in you.
And declared the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead:

Paul said, because the mind of the flesh [is] enmity to God, for to the law of God it doth not subject itself, YLT

 

The only way in which the law is spiritual is that it shows us we are sinners and is a tool that leads us to Christ. However, the is still the law. It is spiritual because it was given by God to Moses. It still condemns.

Christ came as a man to suffer as a man. He was the God-man. God did not allow his body to suffer corruption. He rose from the dead three days after he was buried, and thus suffered no corruption. The disciples also helped in that in that they buried him with about 100 pounds of burial spices, and bound his body tightly so that it would be preserved for a long time. Christ conquered death on the cross. Death had no power over him.

The wages of sin is death. We still die. Those from Adam to Moses died. They died physically as a result of the curse. They died spiritually because of their sin nature. Unless they believed God and righteousness was imputed unto them (as in Noah's case) they would have perished.

The Bible says that "his visage was not recognizable." He was so marred from the beatings that one could not tell it was Christ. In that sense his body suffered just like any other man's suffered. The difference is that he rose from the dead with a perfect body, and now sits at the right hand of God making intercession for us.

That is what Scripture says.

Jesus never "became" a spirit. That is Mormonism.

That is a quote from Romans 8, that you have taken out of context. What has that got to do with anything here? We are in spiritual warfare. We need to subject our minds to God if we are to win this war.

I don't know what you are driving at. You seem to be derailing this thread. You are way off topic. The OP is:

What has the tangent that you are on have anything to do with the OP?

And IMO, for all intents and purposes, I believe the OP has been asked and answered.

 

No place does the scripture refer to the garden command as law. You are trying to twist the intent of term law. There was no law between Adam and Moses.

 

All men have law.

Rom 2:11 For there is no respect of persons with God.
12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
14 For when the Gentiles, which do not have the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
15 Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another; )

Those who sin without the law perish without the law. (vs. 12) But they have a law, They have;

#1 the law written in their hearts
#2 their conscience
#3 their thoughts accusing or excusing one another.

The men from Adam to Moses had these laws.

 

Please do not take the "one word fits all" method of interpretation to Scripture. It is hermeneutically wrong. Cults use it. And many others who are just plain in error. What defines a word. Primarily context. Law has many meanings. It could, and does many times refer to just the Ten Commandments. Sometimes it refers to all of the Mosaic Law. Sometimes it refers to the Torah, or the first five books of Moses, and sometimes it may even refer to the entire OT, and sometimes it simply a synonym for a command, as in a law. Which definition fits best the context of the passage you are examining. There is no such thing as a "one word definition fits all passages." That is wrong. You cannot interpret the Bible like that, when a word has so many definitions.

There was indeed law before Moses.
Would it have been just for God to destroy the entire world in the Flood without any cause, without any Law. Then God is not a just God. You do not believe in a God of justice if what you say is true.

What did God say to Cain? He expected Cain to bring a worthy sacrifice and Cain disobeyed God, and went even further and committed murder, a sin against law. It is explained in 1John. "And we know that no murderer hath eternal life," referring back to Cain.

Gen.9:6 gives the law for capital punishment.
--There certainly was law. How can you deny such?

 

There was no law prior to the Law of Moses.

 

All men have an inner sense of good and evil. It is not necessary to have a written law to discern right from wrong.

For the sake of argument, imagine there were no laws. You are walking down the street and a stranger approaches you and punches you in the mouth. Would you need a law to know this is wrong? No, your own innate sense of right and wrong would immediately recognize this as wrong behavior. We all have this sense of right and wrong.

You can go to the deepest jungle and find people who have never heard the word of God, but you will find they have rules or laws of conduct. This is the law written on the heart.

 

A statement without evidence is simply an opinion born out of the imagination of a man without thinking.

 

It is simply a fact that all Ten Commandments may be found in the Bible before the giving of the law in Exodus 20. God's moral law is eternal (Psalm 119:89).

From my blog. http://marprelate.wordpress.com/2009/09/05/the-covenants-part-1-the-covenant-of-works/

Steve

 

Rom. 7:14 For we know that the law is spiritual: but I am carnal, sold under sin.


Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.

G3:17 And this I say, the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.

G3:19 Why, then, the law? on account of the transgressions it was added.


The law is forever and is spiritual and was the law that was being transgressed against between Adam and Moses. The written law was added to show that the law of God was being transgressed against. All have broken the spiritual law of God.

 

That has nothing to do with this conversation.

 

Exactly! And adding to scripture when scripture says there was no law is sin. :smilewinkgrin:

 

I challenge you to show me where the Scripture says that, not your interpretation of Scripture, but where Scripture actually says that. It doesn't!
(that is that there was no law between Adam and Moses)

 

Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, [there is] no transgression
(For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
Challenge met. :smilewinkgrin:

 

But sin was imputed.
For the wages of sin is death (Rom.6:23)
Sin was imputed and therefore there was law. The consequence of sin is death. We know that sin was imputed. The verse simply states sin is not imputed when there is no law. It does not state that there was no law during that period.

You have failed to meet the challenge.

 

You keep trying to change God's word. It says;
Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, [there is] no transgression.
It was Adams sin that brought the death, not the sin of those after him.
There was no law between Adam and Moses. Babies die wihtout transgressions.

 

First, who said anything about babies? Stick with Scripture.
Second, you are reading into Scripture that which is not there--your ideas, your own pre-conceived notions etc. What does the verse really say?

(For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law. (Romans 5:13)

Sin is not imputed when there is no law.
It does not say there was no law. You are reading that into Scripture. It does not say that. It does not teach that. The very fact that there was law is proven by the presence of both sin and death--the murder of Abel by the hand of Cain; the Flood, etc.

 

No I am saying what scripture says. There was no law from Adam to Moses. Yet there was sin but because of there being no law the sin was not imputed to the person yet they died which is proof that they are sinners before they have sin imputed to them. The same with a baby. The law does not make a person a sinner. Adam did. The law only exposes the person for what he already is. Until Moses there was no law to do that. There was from time to time certain commands or edicts given, but they were given to individuals not a nation and certainly not all mankind. The law of Moses is always the only law referred to as law in scripture.