Proving The Disputed 1 John 5:7 Belongs

Hark · Oct 8, 2014

Accusations have been made that 1 John 5:7 was added to scripture.

1 John 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

http://www.scionofzion.com/1_john_5_7.htm

There were reports that Arians which denies the deity of Christ had almost won in the western part of the Roman Empire in taking over the church whereas a small handful of loyal disciples managed to stem the tide. One can surmise that all Greek documents, if any, were destroyed that contained that disputed 1 John 5:7 which would explain its re introduction in Latin only.

While in the eastern part of the Roman Empite, the Byzantines, had been combatting Sabellianism. Its removal could be seen as deemed necessary if it wasn't an excuse by covert Arians to do so.

Now those oppose can balk at this, but let us consider this line of reasoning;

If 1 John 5:7 is not in the majority of manuscripts, is it in the minority of manuscripts to give some realm of plausibility? Yes.

While this verse is not found in the majority of Greek manuscripts, it is found in a minority (10 total, out of about 500 that contain I John 5)

The Greek texts include 629 (fourteenth century), 61 (sixteenth century), 918 (sixteenth century), 2473 (seventeenth century), and 2318 (eighteenth century). It is also in the margins of 221 (tenth century), 635 (eleventh century), 88 (twelfth century), 429 (fourteenth century), and 636 (fifteenth century)
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How can we know for sure that the disputed 1 John 5:7 belongs there?

By earlier writings testifying to its existence as it is written.

250 AD - Cyprian of Carthage, wrote, "And again, of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost IT IS WRITTEN: "And the THREE are ONE" in his On The Lapsed, On the Novatians.

Note that Cyprian is quoting and says "it is written, And the three are One." He lived from 180 to 250 A.D. and the scriptures he had at that time contained the verse in question. This is at least 100 years before anything we have today in the Greek copies. If it wasn't part of Holy Scripture, then where did he get it?
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AND

415 AD Council of Carthage. The contested verse (1 John 5:7) is quoted at the Council of Carthage (415 A. D.) by Eugenius, who drew up the confession of faith for the "orthodox." It reads with the King James. How did 350 prelates in 415 A.D. take a verse to be orthodox that wasn't in the Bible? It had to exist there from the beginning. It was quoted as "Pater, VERBUM, et Spiritus Sanctus".

".....and in order that we may teach until now, more clearly than light, that the Holy Spirit is now one divinity with the Father and the Son. It is PROVED by the EVANGELIST JOHN, for HE SAYS, 'there are THREE which BEAR TESTIMONY in heaven, the FATHER, the WORD, and the HOLY SPIRIT, and THESE THREE ARE ONE" - Eugenius said at the Council of Carthage
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All quotes from that link BTW

So let us read the verse in context.

1 John 5:6 This is he that came by water and blood, even Jesus Christ; not by water only, but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is truth. 7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. 8 And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one. 9 If we receive the witness of men, the witness of God is greater: for this is the witness of God which he hath testified of his Son.

The witness in earth of the witness of men giving testimony that Jesus was born of water and of blood as the Holy Spirit leads them to witness is the witness of men.

If you remove 1 John 5:7, then where is the witness of God in being greater than the witness of men in verse 9?

So the disputed 1 John 5:7 belongs there in the scripture.

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Proving The Disputed 1 John 5:7 Belongs

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