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Featured Question for Independent Fundamental Baptists

Discussion in 'Fundamental Baptist Forum' started by Jaimee, Nov 17, 2014.

  1. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    It is not a matter of exception, rather when is the exception applicable.

    Some, as Moses found, cannot accept the standard of God and rather "fit" Scriptures to the typical desire of the human.

    The "BOUND" is NOT applied to freedom to marry another - that is clearly stated by what Paul declared earlier. The "bound" is the obligation of the physical matters between the partners of a marriage. There is no obligation for the believer to engage in the physical with one who had abandoned the relationship.

    The Scripture truth is as I stated, that some do not accept that truth just shows all the more the indoctrination of misapplication and desire of the flesh.
     
  2. Sola Scriptura

    Sola Scriptura New Member

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    He cannot because it does not. https://scarletdblog.wordpress.com/
     
  3. Sola Scriptura

    Sola Scriptura New Member

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    This explanation of Matthew 19:9 falls short for several reasons.

    First, there is no evidence that anyone debated reasons to divorce during betrothal. This is a situation that was superfluous to the Mosaical law and to the immediate context of Matthew 19.It would be extremely odd since there there were no laws, restrictions or instructions in the Old Testament when it came to reasons for getting out of a betrothal. The man could divorce his betrothal for any reason.

    Second, the context of Matthew 19:1-10 is in relation to marriage, not betrothal. This is seen in light of the fact that Jesus speaks of God joining man and woman, a process that happens at marriage and not betrothal (Mt. 19:6; Gen. 2:23-24).The Jews were wondering about divorce for marriage, not betrothal (Mt. 19:1-4). This is also seen in the Greek word translated “marriage” which is in the context of Matthew 19 (v.9, 10). This Greek word translated as “marriage” in this context never refers to a betrothal in the New Testament or in the Greek Old Testament. Certainly if Jesus wanted to speak of betrothal, He would have used the word that meant betrothal (Mt. 1:18, Lk. 1:27; 2:5). Instead, Jesus used the word marriage and not the word betrothal. Even the disciples understood Jesus to be speaking of marriage in this context (Mt. 19:10). https://scarletdblog.wordpress.com/
     
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