Question For KJVO'ers

Well since we presently live, in a Burger King world. Have it your way, it does no harm to me.

 

No!, I have seen the NLT, and it is still a translation of independent thought. It follows no certain text, good or bad. It is a paraphrase not a Bible.

Its the same as when I quote a scripture, and say this is not exactly the way it goes, but comes close. That is a Paraphrase.

 

Where did you get that idea?

http://www.newlivingtranslation.com/05discoverthenlt/faqs.asp

 

For one leaving four days ago and gone from the BB until after New Year's, you're sure getting a late start!

Ed

 

Is there no B/K in Seoul?? Horrors! :tear:

Ed

 

I had a couple of couple of hours last night (St Stephen's Day) when the rest of the family was busy so I snuck on

 

I get a bang out of all the argument and find that not one person has mentioned the rather obvious. You cannot translate without interpretation. There is not one translation that is 100% faithful to the original language. There are several words which will never be able to be translated into English. There are idioms in the original language that make no sense to an English speaker.

Furthermore to accurately translate, one must also translate use the use of common and poor grammar, and the high level grammar of Paul in the NT and convey the same use of common and high level of English. One must also translate the Hebrew expressions which were expressed in Greek much the same way a person would write as if English were their second language. Hebrew does not have a word for wife as we do in English. It is written as the woman of a man's name of the woman of a man. Yet we never read that in an English Bible.

So the idea of translating the original languages and being tied to the source language simply does not exist. Even in the KJV there is a lot of dynamic equivalence.

 

How is it you know this and relate your ideal to us who speak English and you do that in English? Please explain these idioms and untranslatable words.

Then tell us how you understand them and yet speak English?

Can we see all the versions you have accurately translated?

Yet in the KJB we have no disharmony in the context!:godisgood: That cannot be said about those versions you "like" other than the KJB.

 

Sneaky little "sinner" aren't you! as opposed to the religious tradition to observe a dead man's day!:laugh:

 

Salamander: Yet in the KJB we have no disharmony in the context! That cannot be said about those versions you "like" other than the KJB.

WRONG!

Try Acts 12:4 & 1 Tim. 6:10 for starters.

 

Sometimes it is tough and at other times impossible. Words that do not translate have no meaning in our language. It would be like translating the words, "You know ey?" into another language. When I went to Finland I used the phrase, "A bird in the hand is worth two in the bush." The couple I was with just looked at me strangely because they did not know what I meant. Translating idioms requires an excellent knowledge of what the idiom meant then in that context and to try and give a dynamic equivalence meaning to it today.

A good example of an idiom in the NT would be in 1 Jn 3:17, “his bowels from him” "Bowels from him" would have no meaning to us unless we knew what the meaning of that idiomatic expression meant.