Question

And any others who would care to join in.

Knowing that Christ being raised from the dead dieth no more; death hath no more dominion over him. Romans 6:9
For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself; John 5:26

Can those two things be written concerning One to whom it would be impossible for them to have applied to?

But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die. Genesis 2:17 KJV
and of the tree of knowledge of good and evil, thou dost not eat of it, for in the day of thine eating of it -- dying thou dost die.' YLT

How is that in bold from two translations going to be atoned for?

For that atonement, does it require shed blood, death, of one without sin and also for life to be given again to that one who died?

Did not Spirit the God who is called the Father in John 4:23,24 create man in his image, taking from that man, a help meet for him, woman, for the very purpose of in the fullness of time the Son of God could be born of woman born under the law ( that is subject to death)?

 

Another question along the same train of thought.

1 Cor. 15:50 Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.

Could Jesus the Son of God, the Son, God made heir of all things Heb 11:2 have inherited the kingdom had he not been?

And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence. Col. 1:18

 

Sorry I did not know that. Also do not know how to correct it. If you can please do.

Would have posted this in another thread but it was locked.

 

Saw under #8 Sorry about that but as I said I wanted to quote to him/her and could not because closed.