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Questions about the MKJV

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by BrianT, Jan 11, 2004.

  1. BrianT

    BrianT New Member

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    I received the following questions in email. Answers? Comments?:

    Supposedly, Jay Green's Modern King James Version is translated from the same source texts as the traditional KJV. Is this true? If so, is it a better/more accurate translation of those texts than the traditional KJV?

    Put another way, is the MKJV as faithful to it's source MSS as the NASB is to it's source MSS?
     
  2. timothy 1769

    timothy 1769 New Member

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    It's based on the same texts, and is more literal with no archaic language.

    He also publishes the LITV, based on the same texts but extremely literal.

    IMO the MKJV is a basically a blending of the KJV with his LITV. IMO it is a way too extensive update.
     
  3. Daniel David

    Daniel David New Member

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    I have the MKJV and enjoy studying from it as much as any other TR translation.

    An interesting verse is John 3:8.
     
  4. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Sorry, I am not interested in MKJV because it has some controversies.
     
  5. tinytim

    tinytim <img src =/tim2.jpg>

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    I also have the MKJV, can you elaborate on JOhn 3:8?
     
  6. skanwmatos

    skanwmatos New Member

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    The MKJV has confused the illustration for the reality.

    "The Spirit breathes where He desires, and you hear His voice, but you do not know from where He comes, and where He goes; so is everyone who is born of the Spirit."
     
  7. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    To get back to the original question, I would say the MKJV is not as accurate as the KJV. The following paragraph is from my article "History of the English Bible" found at Battle of Life.

    The MKJV, unlike the KJV, the NKJV and many of the MV's, is the work of a single person. This can allow for some interpretations to creep in which would not creep in when a committee works on a translation. The MKJV is an interesting version to read, but I am not entirely certain of its reliability.

    As for John 3:8, here is the verse as found in various TR Bibles:

    John 3
    8 The wind bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh, and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the Spirit. (KJV)

    John 3
    8 The wind blows where it wishes, and you hear the sound of it, but cannot tell where it comes from and where it goes. So is everyone who is born of the Spirit. (NKJV)

    John 3
    8 The wind bloweth where it will, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the Spirit. (KJ21)

    John 3
    8 The wind bloweth where it will, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the Spirit. (TMB)

    John 3
    8 The wind bloweth where it will, and thou hearest the sound of it, but canst not tell whence it cometh, and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the Spirit. (Webster)

    John 3
    8 The Spirit breathes where He desires, and you hear His voice; but you do not know from where He comes, and where He goes; so is everyone having been generated from the Spirit. (LITV)

    John 3
    8 The Spirit breathes where He desires, and you hear His voice, but you do not know from where He comes, and where He goes; so is everyone who is born of the Spirit. (MKJV)

    Green's versions, the LITV and MKJV, are the only TR Bibles I found to render "the Spirit" rather than "the wind." The Greek word pneuma (Strong's 4151) is defined in Strong's as both spirit and a gentle wind or breath.

    Pneuma is rendered as "Spirit" in the Contemporary English Version, in Young's Literal Translation, and in the Rheims-Douay Bible. It is renedred as "wind" in many modern versions, including the New International Version, the American Standard Version, and the New American Standard Bible. A footnote in the English Standard Version says "The same Greek word means both wind and spirit." Maybe Green isn't so wrong in his rendering after all!
     
  8. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    I recently acquired a copy of the MKJV and to date I enjoy it very much.
     
  9. BishopAPG

    BishopAPG New Member

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    I recently acquired a copy of the MKJV and to date I enjoy it very much.
    --------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    Johnv,

    Where did you find one. I have been trying for a while to get a copy.
     
  10. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    A friend of mine acquired one, and gave it to me as a present. I'll have to find out where he got it.
     
  11. Spirit and Truth

    Spirit and Truth New Member

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    It is an easy read and a quality book. Christian literature world on the net sells them. They have a bunch of seconds in the $20-25 dollar range. I purchased them for some friends and they really like them.
     
  12. Ronnie#1

    Ronnie#1 Guest

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    [​IMG] What are the thoughts concerning the NKJV
    study Bible? I have heard pros & cons reguarding
    this Bible. As to wheather or nit I like it is yes, I do. I want others thoughts .
     
  13. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    I don't have a copy of the NKJV Study Bible, but I use the NKJV as my default version at the web site where I do most of my online Bible study. I also have a Ryrie Study Bible in the NKJV, but I don't think the Ryrie is available in the NKJV these days - haven't seen a new one since the days when I had hair. :rolleyes: The NKJV retains much of the majesty of the KJV yet much of the language has been updated to use more modern terminology. Although I use various Bible versions, I consider myself NKJVP.
     
  14. Forever settled in heaven

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    that's SO funny i woulda spewed coffee n ruined my keyboard.

    only that i didn't have coffee this morning!

    :D

    it has some controversies? what abt the KJB1863?

    [​IMG]
     
  15. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Modern KJV that was translated by Jay P. Green Sr. is corrupted.

    The MKJV on Genesis 1:1 said, "In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth."

    The old KJV on Genesis 1:1 said, "In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth."

    What is the difference between the HeavenS and the Heaven?
     
  16. skanwmatos

    skanwmatos New Member

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    Nothing. The Hebrew word is a collective plural, it can be translated either as a collective "heaven" or as a plural "heavens."

    What do you believe is "corrupted" in Jay Green's translation (other than it is not the KJV)?
     
  17. Forever settled in heaven

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    Nothing. The Hebrew word is a collective plural, it can be translated either as a collective "heaven" or as a plural "heavens."
    </font>[/QUOTE]technically, it ain't a singular or "collective plural" but a DUAL ;)

    now, what gives the right of ANY translator/version to change God's Words fr Dual to either Singular or Plural?


    :D
     
  18. skanwmatos

    skanwmatos New Member

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    Well, technically, the "dual" is an alternate form of the standard plural, and does not imply anything more or less than plurality. To call it "dual" is thus something of a misnomer, since it does NOT mean that there are only two of the given items. Note Deut 10:14. Note another Hebrew collective "shinayim" meaning "teeth" which is also grammatically a dual but refers to all 32 teeth! In this case the dual is probably used to indicate a pair, the heaven and the earth, even though it is clear that "heaven" includes the atmospheric "heaven," the stellar "heaven," and the abode of God. This may also indicate it is the atmospheric and stellar heavens which are being referenced and does not include the abode of God. But it is, none the less, a collective and can be translated either way. [​IMG]
     
  19. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Modern versions agreed with MKJV reflecting to the word, "heavens" on Genesis 1:1, however they are incorrect because this verse contradicts with Gen. 2:1 saying "heavens."

    The KJV is very clear on Gen. 1:1 and 2:1.
     
  20. BrianT

    BrianT New Member

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    Then why is the *Hebrew* the same in both places?
     
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