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Semantic range fallacy

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by BobinKy, Dec 10, 2010.

  1. BobinKy

    BobinKy New Member

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    In a recent PM exchange with another member, the term "Semantic range fallacy" came up in the discussion of Bible Versions/Translations. The member used the term in reference to The Amplified Bible translation.

    I am new at this--Can some of you explain what this term means and why it is important or not important?

    Thanks.

    ...Bob
     
  2. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    It's often called "illegitimate totality transfer" in that it assumes that a word (or phrase) can carry its entire semantic range in a particular passage, no matter the context.
     
  3. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    When doing a word study a student must determine all possible meanings of a word or phrase, this determines a words “biblical” semantic range.
    Scholars determine the semantic range of a word by determining its usage in the bible and in non-biblical literature.

    A theological dictionary is useful, providing the most in-depth data about ancient biblical words.

    There are some common errors that occur with word studies of this type.

    Words change meaning over time. Our scriptures were written over centuries by a variety of authors in a variety of cultural settings; the words they used don’t always have the same meaning.

    The fallacy occurs when a student determines a words full semantic range and then chooses a definition that suits their preconceived interpretation.

    .... as I write this I'm reminded of a book by D.A. Carson called Exegetical Fallacies.... Unfortunately it's not available for preview with Google Books.


    Let's see... yep, the whole first chapter (~40 pages) is devoted to Word Study fallicies.

    Rob
     
  4. BobinKy

    BobinKy New Member

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    rsr & Deacon...

    Thank you for your explanation.

    ...Bob
     
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