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Some Queries For KJV Proponents

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Rippon, Apr 15, 2010.

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  1. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Of course you don't even read or have copies of even the NKJ -- so how can you try to make that claim?

    I've thought about and decided that's not a possibility.

    Aw, why not. I'll take you up on that. They do differ from one another. I'm saying it. Just call me "No One".
     
  2. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    And now I'm a Catholic- LOL! Sheesh...

    KJVO's will go to any length to discredit anything that is not KJ. Fact is if you read it in context the people Paul is referring to are claiming to see things that they did not. They said they saw them and were bragging about what they "saw".

    Example- I once worked with a girl who swore up and down that she saw Jesus standing by her bed telling her that certain people that she worked with were talking about her behind her back. Now she truly believed that she saw Jesus, but I think she just had too many slices of Papa Joe's before she hit the sack.
     
  3. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    I've never owned a Chevy Corvette or Ford Mustang either, but I easily recognize both when they come down the street. I have never owned a NKJV, but I have read numerous articles on it and have seen many differences between the KJV and NKJV.

    Fine.

    Great, you agree they differ. Therefore there are only two possibilities.

    #1 The inerrant word of God is lost forever and God did not preserve it as he promised.

    #2 The inerrant word of God can exist in only one version as all versions are very different and do not say the same thing in many verses and passages.

    Finally we are getting somewhere.
     
  4. Baptist4life

    Baptist4life Well-Known Member
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    And now I'm KJVO!..sheesh.............fact is they SAY two DIFFERENT things!
     
  5. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    What does that have to do with this issue? Open up your KJV and NIV if you have them and you will see Colossians 2:18 contradicts each other. The KJV says these people have not seen these things, the NIV says they have seen them. These two versions contradict each other in this verse.
     
  6. TomVols

    TomVols New Member

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    Corvettes are nice. Get one!

    Seriously, recognizing one and knowing one is different as night and day. I recognized the Governor of Tennessee when I see him. I don't know him personally. To recognize the NKJV and actually know its contents are two different things. Try passing a school test by saying you recognize the work but didn't do it :)

    Bifurcation. Is there really only two options? Reallly only two? How so?

    And if we use #2, then we have to rule out the KJV since the KJV is so varied among its different versions/revisions.
     
  7. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    If the KJV and all the MVs are very different from each other, if they often convey a different message or contradict each other (which they do), then they cannot possibly be all inerrant at the same time. So, the only possibilities are that all versions are corrupt, or that only one is inerrant.

    That is common sense and pure logic. If you believe there is another possibility, then please tell us what it is.

    It is true that you can find a few (very few, none of which effect doctrine) differences between say a Cambridge and Oxford edition, but these are due to typographical errors by the printers, not errors by the translators. The fact that errors have been identified shows there exists an infallible standard. I submitted a link to an article on these three errors, all due to typographical errors.

    http://www.kjv-only.com/rick/waites3errors.html

    There have not been different versions of the KJV, only revisions. I have submitted an article on that as well.

    http://www.biblebelievers.com/Reagan_myth-early.html

    If you believe the KJV corrupt, then which version do you believe to be the preserved, inerrant, and infallible word of God?
     
    #87 Winman, Apr 19, 2010
    Last edited by a moderator: Apr 19, 2010
  8. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    Contradiction does not always equal error. Perhaps both are wrong- kind of like your statement:

    "Therefore there are only two possibilities.

    #1 The inerrant word of God is lost forever and God did not preserve it as he promised.

    #2 The inerrant word of God can exist in only one version as all versions are very different and do not say the same thing in many verses and passages."
     
  9. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    You guys keep telling me I am wrong when I say there are only two possibilities, but none of you offers additional possibilities.

    If you believe that the translation in both the KJV and NIV is wrong, then which version is the preserved, inerrant, and infallible word of God?
     
  10. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    You cannot really believe this. :eek:

    God did preserve His Word (NOT an English translation). Only in His Word is divine preservation (NOT in an English translation)

    You attack God's Word by claiming for an Anglican-made translation that honor. God will not hold guiltless those corrupting and attacking His Word and giving glory to another.
     
  11. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    Where is this preserved word?
     
  12. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    Good question. Is it here?

    Hee that hath the Sonne, hath life; and hee that hath not the Sonne, hath not life.

    Or here?

    He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son of God hath not life.

    Remember, only one can be perfect.
     
  13. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    Pick up ANY Greek New Testament. Even an old Stevens from 1555 or a modern NA27. They have apparatus that show when ancient manuscripts differed and what other word might have occured.

    EVERY Word of God is in there. It takes a little work to see which matches the original (not a game or guess, real work) and voila, there you have it.

    God promised not a Word would be lost. IF that held true to His words (Greek), then they are all there. IF that held true to a man-made translation, God's Word was lost for 1611 years. ;(

    And even today, I don't know which of the 8 major revisions or 100+ varying editions is correct. Only one can be right, right?

    Oh, we laugh at the foolish Galatians who were bewitched into believing a man-made lie instead of God's Word. And then come the Adventists and now adopted by a few Baptists to believe a greater lie.

    Not laughing at the attack on God's Word by those who elevate the works of man to the level of God.
     
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