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SPANISH BIBLE??? YES OR NO?

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by AZfiddler_Oct1996, Nov 18, 2004.

  1. mioque

    mioque New Member

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    "Were all Spanish Bibles translated from English Versions or were any translated directly from Greek and Hebrew?"
    "
    Ofcourse not. Many Spanish Bibles were translated using different translation philosophies similar to that used for many different English Bibles. Just like the Statenbijbel is the Dutch equivalent of the KJB, the Groot Nieuws Bijbel is the Dutch equivalent of Good News for Modern Man, the Willibrordbijbel is the Dutch equivalent of the NAB and the Nieuwe Vertaling of 1951 is the Dutch equivalent of the RSV.
     
  2. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    Correct me if I am misreading this, but it sounds like you are implying that these Bibles are translated from "English". Else, how would you have an "equivalent" to the "Good News for Modern Man", for example?

    Specifically which Spanish versions were translated from Greek/Hebrew and which were translated from English?
     
  3. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    This is Logic 101
    HankD
    </font>[/QUOTE]Thank you Hank.

    After a while you begin to wonder what happened to good ole' common-sense. :confused:
     
  4. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    Hmmmm, that would violate the KJVO doctrine. KJVO doctrine states very explicitly that the KJV is the Word of God for today's people. Hence, a bible in Spanish must be translated from the KJV in order to be considered the perfect Word of God. As a result, the reina valera 1960 cannot be the perfect Word of God to the KJVOist, since it was not tanslated from the KJV.

    Of course, KJVO doctrine is false anyway, so whether the Reina Valera is or isn't the Spanish KJV equivalent is a nonissue. Same goes with the Cipriano de Valera or any other Spanish translation.
     
  5. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    So far as I know, all the major "modern" Spanish Bibles were translated from the original languages. An exception would be the "Biblia Autorizada Del Rey Jaime 1611," which was indeed translated from the KJV and is just a curiosity.
     
  6. saul^paul

    saul^paul New Member

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    That would be a good question to ask the American Bible Society just too see what they would say. Check out http://www.exorthodoxforchrist.com/reina-valera.htm

    But no doubt the RV1960 is a mix of both text TR and W/H. The thing that has swaded the spanish speaking world to accepting the RV1960 is the language revision it is a easier bible to read and understand than the RV1569,1602,1862,1909. I wished there was a spanish bible that used more simplier words and stuck with a more traditional text. I myself dont even consider books with copyrights as bibles, if i was to translate a bible why would i want to copyright it if it derived from GOD.

    If you are interested in translating a spanish bible let me know [​IMG]

    ¡Dios le bendiga!
     
  7. mioque

    mioque New Member

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    Phillip
    :rolleyes:
    No I'm not.
    "how would you have an "equivalent" to the "Good News for Modern Man", for example?"
    "
    Simple, both in the Spanish speaking world and in the English speaking world there was a perceived need for a translation that could easily be read by people outside the church with only a moderate amount of education. So 2 translations from the original tongues were made 1 into Spanish, 1 into English each one done by a different Bible society.
    Same purpose, same translation philosophy and both translated same Hebrew/Greek text.
     
  8. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    It left on a train to 17th contury England. [​IMG]

    HankD
     
  9. AZfiddler_Oct1996

    AZfiddler_Oct1996 New Member

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    Let me give some logic.We all know and agree that God and Jesus were and still are both perfect. right? fiddlers bro.
     
  10. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    Gotcha, Moique. I see now! Sorry [​IMG]
     
  11. 3John2

    3John2 New Member

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    I had a very nice brother in the Lord from Honduras who was kind enough to send me a verios based on the TR in NT ONLY called
    "Antigua Version the Cipriano de Valera 1602"
    It is REALLY good for Spanish. Actually the best I've seen yet. THe fact that it's based on the TR makes it that much better.
    HOWEVER I have yet to see it in FULL, in other words OT & NT both. In any case I'm blessed to be able to have it. If anyone knows anything else about this version please let me know as I am VERY interested in purchasing a copy with the OT as well.
    Funny it was printed PRIOR to the KJV USING the TR so what do the KJVO's have to say about that?
     
  12. AZfiddler_Oct1996

    AZfiddler_Oct1996 New Member

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    The view from the Gods Word is that a Bible that has words added to or taken away from is not a complete bible. I have "lived" in and around the spanish bible from the time i was born.I was born in the state of sonora. Let me say something, it seems that the KJV has become an enemy to the baptist in the states. I would think that God being just and perfect would give nations the ability to have HIS WORD.

    We put a lot of confidence in a person on this earth who keeps his word. I think it would be wise to provide God with that same respect.
     
  13. AZfiddler_Oct1996

    AZfiddler_Oct1996 New Member

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    Let me ask every one a question,

    If God is going to judge us out of "every word"
    Doesn't it seem he would have to provide us with those words to be able to judge us justly? notice it says every word......See
    God has to provide mankind with the ability to have HIS WORD. read John 1:1....it says that God and his Word are one and the same? Right?
     
  14. AZfiddler_Oct1996

    AZfiddler_Oct1996 New Member

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    As far as the Spanish Bible goes what was done when Mr Valera and Mr Reina did the work ..they used some of the manuscrips That W and H later used to produce a Crit. text. Therefore causing the product to read exactly down to the T in thousands of places like a Crit. Text translation in English.
     
  15. AZfiddler_Oct1996

    AZfiddler_Oct1996 New Member

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    To answer 3JOHN2, You stated that the 1602 bible
    you have was published before the kjv and you are correct.You also said that it was "printed prior to the kjv USING THE TR. You also spoke correctly when you said that- Using thr T R.


    You see people many times fail to finish what they are saying. Thankfully most saved baptist will not out right lie.


    The fact that this 1602 bible reads the same as various CRIT. text Bibles in English proves with out any doubt that it was translated using some of the manuscripts that West, and Hort used later to make the CRIT.TEXT. fiddlers bro.


    3JOHN2, you seem to imply that "OLDER IS BETTER" and therefore those that KJVO should be able to see that well OLDER IS BETTER. I have one question.


    Why is "OLDER BETTER"?
     
  16. mioque

    mioque New Member

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    AZfiddler_Oct1996
    "The view from the Gods Word is that a Bible that has words added to or taken away from is not a complete bible."
    "
    Which is why Christian purists&professionals learn Koine Greek and Hebrew, to make sure all those jots and tittles are actually part of their Bible.

    "what was done when Mr Valera and Mr Reina did the work ..they used some of the manuscrips That W and H later used to produce a Crit. text."
    "
    Both were 16th century Spanish monks, making the documents that were used by W&H, but not by Erasmus completely unavailable* to them.


    *With the theoretical exception of Vaticanus, but it nor copies of it never left the Vatican during the 16th century and Reina + Valera had joined the Reformers so they couldn't visit Rome to look it up.
     
  17. AZfiddler_Oct1996

    AZfiddler_Oct1996 New Member

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    If they had no access to those texts then why do the spanish Bibles that we have today read exactly like the CRIT. TEXT. bibles we have today?


    Logic says if the two books read the same then they came from the same source [​IMG] . fiddlers bro.

    [ November 26, 2004, 03:23 AM: Message edited by: AZfiddler_Oct1996 ]
     
  18. AZfiddler_Oct1996

    AZfiddler_Oct1996 New Member

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    hope you are still on..
     
  19. mioque

    mioque New Member

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    "If they had no access to those texts then why does the spanish Bibles that we have today read exactly like the CRIT. TEXT. bibles we have today?"
    "
    For the exact same reason the Revised Standard Version (which is a revision of the KJB) reads like it does.
     
  20. AZfiddler_Oct1996

    AZfiddler_Oct1996 New Member

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    please explain :confused: ;)

    [ November 26, 2004, 03:28 AM: Message edited by: AZfiddler_Oct1996 ]
     
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