Strange Things the Holy Spirit Cannot Do….

STOP THE DISHONESTY. We do not know his ability and means. We deny that he does it the way you claim. Those are very different issues. If we denied his ability and means, we would have to deny the very existence of inspired Scripture.

Again, you show that you don't even understand the discussion.

We are not talking about interpretation, but about a textual variant.

 

I'm not disagreing with you here just asking a question.

How do you distinguish between what the Holy Spirit affirms to you and what a mormon feels when he gets confirmation of the Truth of the Book of Mormon by a burning in his/her bussom?

 

Yes you are. When you say that we believe the Holy Spirit doesn't have the ability to testify to our hearts, you are being dishonest. We have said time and time again, he has the ability.

His ability was never in question. He has the ability and he can reveal truth of that nature to your heart.

I didn't deny that.

I don't speak out of both sides of my mouth. I have been clear and yes, the problem is with you not understanding.

Say I do not know what?

I never said "he cannot act." I said he doesn't. That is a completely different statement.

Of course not, but you are not paying attention. You don't seem to know what the conversation is about.

Let's be clear yet again:

1. The Holy Spirit can reveal truth to your heart such as textual variants, new revelation, whatever.
2. The Holy Spirit does not reveal truth immediately to your heart. He does it through means. He does not speak directly to us, or give us impressions, about textual variants.

Get this clearly: He can, but he doesn't.

This discussion is not about his ability. It is about what he actually does.

 

Pastor Larry,

I have a question.

You said"Get this clearly: He can, but he doesn't."

Is there anywhere in the New Testament where He did?

God Bless,

Tam

 

The whole NT is the result of him doing that. In addition, there are many individual instances.

 

Please answer this post HP.

 

I think the testimony of Scripture is that 1) Scripture is completely sufficient to equip us for every good work and therefore, we don't need this extra information, and 2) that revelatory/direct revelation gifts have ceased with the close of the canon.

I could make an extended argument for that, but I don't have time, and I can't do it as well as it has been done in other places.

It should be enough to recognize that Scripture is sufficient to equip us for every good work, and I don't need extra information from the Spirit. His work is in the realm of regeneration and illumination.

Because experience is not the measure of doctrine. Scripture is. What I have experienced is irrelevant.

BTW, I have to note the irony that you are asking me for clear Scripture yet you have produced no clear Scripture in support of your position that the Spirit gives you information regarding textual variants. Why the double standard?

 

Other way around HP.
Does the Holy Spirit testify to you about mathematical concepts?
Why or why not?
Does He then testify to you about textual criticism? Why the one and not the other? They are both outside the realm of the teaching of the Word? You must show your case from the Bible.

 

But He doesn't do it anymore. Is that correct?

Tam

 

No, I do not believe you are correct.
In fact I believe you are far removed from the mark of the truth.
Please understand this. No translation of the Scriptures is inspired--not the KJV--not any translations.
It is impossible. If they were inspired, then every single word would be perfect, without error, completely infallible. We know that is not the case. For example, in Acts 12:4 the word "pascha" in all other places in the NT is translated "passover." In this one place it is mis-translated "Easter." It is a wrong translation.

In the OT, the word "unicorn" is used a number of times. The unicorn is Greek mythology which the Jews did not believe. If you look in other translations you will find a much more accurate translation of the word.

The word church should simply read "assembly". Political Correctness on the part of the Anglican Church required them to translate it as church, and it has caused confusion ever since.

In Phil.3:20 the word "conversation" is used, as "Our conversation is in heaven." Is it? Our speech? Our behaviour? No, the word should have been translated citizenship. Nowhere else in the Bible was this word translated this way.

Romans 6:2 God forbid. How shall we, that are dead to sin, live any longer therein?
--The words "God forbid" are not even in the Greek--not "God," nor "forbid," neither one.
The expression should read: "May it not be." That is the accurate literal translation. But the KJV translators used dynamic equivalency this time.

No translation is perfect. They all have mistakes of translation. There is no one who can translate perfectly because of idioms and such that are untranslatable or unique to one language. The translator can come close, but not perfect. Thus the KJV cannot be perfect. Some meaning is lost in the translation--always. That is why we have the Greek NT to rely upon, as well as the Hebrew OT. The KJV is not inspired; it is not perfect.

 

DHK: No translation is perfect. They all have mistakes of translation. There is no one who can translate perfectly because of idioms and such that are untranslatable or unique to one language. The translator can come close, but not perfect. Thus the KJV cannot be perfect. Some meaning is lost in the translation--always. That is why we have the Greek NT to rely upon, as well as the Hebrew OT. The KJV is not inspired; it is not perfect.

You Sir appear to have stepped in your own mess. Ever since I have been coming to this board, you have said that 1Cor 13-10 "But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away." is proof that the bible is the perfect that is spoken of here. I remember that you said that is why all prophecy and tongues have passed away.

Now you say the bible is not perfect.

If none of the translations are correct, then we don't have the "perfect" yet.


Care to explain?

Tam

 

I'd be glad to explain.
The Old English word "perfect" means "complete."
When that which is "perfect" (completed) is come then that which is in part shall be done away.
When the completed word came, then those gifts which were temporary were done away.
"Perfect" in the Bible, often means "complete."

As in many words, the word is used differently today, and doesn't have quite the same meaning as it did 400 years ago.

 

Pastor Larry,

A few years ago I was at work one night, and at a time when it was not very busy, I discerned God saying to me "Go up to the 3rd floor"

Thats all. Just go up to the 3rd floor.

So, up the elevator I went. I had no idea what God had for me to do, but when I got up there I just started walking down the hallway.

Just as I passed by a particular room, a co-worker glanced at the door...at just the moment that I was passing by...and called me in, saying that she was just thinking that she wished I was there.

It turned out the person she was speaking with (witnessing to) had some spiritual questions and she didnt have the answers.

I was able to minster to the man more adequetly.



Do you believe that God witnessed to my heart to go up to the 3rd floor at that moment?


:godisgood:

 

It is really sad to see people such as yourself, DHK, appear to have so much knowledge. If we all listened to you, we would feel that we have absolutely no business reading the bible without having a college degree.

As for myself, I prefer to let God interpret my KJV and let me know what it says. I may not have a college degree, but I do have the Holy Ghost to interpret for me, and he will teach me all things.

I know you don't see it that way, and that's O.K. This seems to be where I came in, so i will see you later.

May God show you all the things you need to know.

Working for Jesus,

Tam

P.S. If we use your thinking, then unlearned people would not be able to receive the Word, and be saved. So sad.

 

God does show me what I need to know.
The sad thing is that you reject knowledge based on outdated words.
If you teach others the same way their knowledge of the gospel will be hindered. You are hindering others from understanding the Word.

I demonstrated to you in a number of ways how the meanings of words have changed. "Perfect" often, if not most of the time, means "complete."

Now, let me give you another example.

2 Thessalonians 2:7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.
The word "let" means "allow," correct? That is how we use it in our everyday language. So you teach according to your KJV that "he who now allows will allow until he will be taken out of the way."


But look at a modern translation, which gives a modern meaning to that outdated word "let" which has changed in meaning from 400 years ago.


[FONT=&quot]2 Thessalonians 2:7 For the mystery of lawlessness already works. Only there is one who restrains now, until he is taken out of the way

The word does not mean "allow" but rather the opposite of allow, "restrain." You would be teaching the opposite of what the verse is teaching. The word now has the opposite meaning of what it used to have. Words change in meaning. Old English words in the KJV have become archaic and have changed in meaning. Unless one realizes that their understanding of the Bible will be very poor.

Furthermore, as I have pointed, and as you can consult with any missionary on this board that has done translational board, there is no perfect translation. Meaning is always lost in translation from one language to another. There is no such thing as a "perfect translation."
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