The answer is not in the manuscripts.

Uh, excuse me, but am I mistaken when I say that although the secular world of Alexandria was corrupt, but that Christianity had great revivals there in the first and second centuries? If so, what versions were they using? The ones we found there?

You see, accepting an alexandrian document as being more accurate does not change doctrine. God said He would preserve His Word. The few verses that we argue about in difference are "nothing" to absolute doctrine of His Word.

Even a secular book on the Bible I have espouses how it is amazing that the Bible would be confirmed by so many ancient manuscripts with very little change to wording and no change to conceptual content.

Go to the thread where Dr. Bob asks for doctrinal changes of redemption and salvation. Answer it, if you can.

All the argument is doing is creating confusion for some Christians. There would be no argument here and this entire debate would probably close if the KJVO didn't keep bringing up their stance. No debate, no confusion. We don't go around preaching "MV". But the KJVO keeps preaching it, as if it is part of the Gospel.