The Book of Hebrews

Let me address the second concern first.
Indeed, who is "us"? Who are all the possibilities?

Surely we can rule out OT saints and those of the OT who died before the writing of Hebrews, therefore all we have left to choose from are those of 1Cor 10:32, Jew, Gentile, and Church.

And surely we can rule out the Gentile for the flavor of the whole book is indeed Jewish with the retelling of so much Jewish history. If the "us" was indeed Gentiles, then why the Jewish flavor?

There are many passages in Hebrews that speak of losing salvation; therefore IMO this rules out the Christian if one does believe in the security of salvation.

So, now we have only the Jew left. But we also have a division of the Jew in scripture made by Paul himself.
We see the Jew who accepted Jesus as Lord and Saviour and became Christian as exampled by Paul himself and we see the Jew who Paul says God will again deal with in the future. (Rom 11)

The believing Jew can be ruled out as the "us" for the same reason as the Christian of Gentile heritage because of the security of salvation issue.

That only leaves the Jew of the future as described by Paul in Rom 11 to be the "us".

I would also add with the edit button, that the "us" are the same as the "we" in Heb 12:25 when Jesus speaks from Heaven with a voice that shakes the earth.

Since we know who the "us" is, and in view of all the OT passages dealing with the future Kingdom when God will fulfill the promises He made to the Nation of Israel, the message of Heb 4:4 becomes a bit clearer.

Now I will ask a similar question as you asked me.

What is there in the text to indicate that this book is written to some present generation?

 

I disagree that Hebrews speaks of losing salvation.

Paul addresses Gentiles directly in at least one place, Rom. 11:13:
But I am speaking to you who are Gentiles. Inasmuch then as I am an apostle of Gentiles, I magnify my ministry,

although I think it is written mostly with Jewish believers in mind tempted to go back to Jewish practices.

 

I agree, written to Hebrew Christians. And this just occurred to me: if Paul is the apostle to the Gentiles, does that fact weaken the argument that Paul wrote the letter to the Hebrews?

 

Another "hair pulling" (my perspective) thread on Hebrews. People wondering whether it was written to Jews even though the Title of the book (same as in the original, by the way) should give it away. People confidently asserting that Paul wrote it without objection to the fact that the book mentions no author and the Greek writing style isn't Paul's. People wondering if it was written to Christians without first noticing the inclusive language of the author (who was most definitely Saved) throughout the book when referring to matters of sainthood in the Church. Others wondering if their Salvation was questioned in chapter six when the author clearly explained what he was doing in verse 9. And the list goes on...

Do I dare bring up Melchizedek? raying:

 

Well The idea Pauline authorship is pretty well done away with for several reasons. Not the least of which is the completely different language used by the author that distinguishes it from the Pauline corpus.

 

No greeting or benediction. Not really a letter but an exhortation. Exclusive quotation from the LXX (did the author know Hebrew like Paul did?).

 

Marcia, I wish to be very, very clear here for this always happens when discussing the meatier things from books like Matt, Hebrews, James, Rev.....

Yes, I have said IMO there are passages in Hebrews that speak of losing salvation; but I have not applied the doctrine of those passages to anyone of today or anyone who is Christian, a member of the Body of Christ.

I strongly believe in the security of salvation for those in Christ; but that still leaves one with what to do with the literal reading of said passages from Hebrews.

-Some "spiritualize" away the passages while placing them on only certain Christians of a certain heritage.
-Some chose to re-write the passages feeling they know better what God was saying.
-Some (Catholic church) use the passages to show man today can lose salvation.

Personally I have to reject all of the above options.

 

It is true (Gal. has a verse on this) that Paul's ministry was to the Gentiles and Peter to the Jews, but that wouldn't stop him from writing to them altogether. Certainly, a person who went on record as being able to wish himself accursed for his Jewish brethren wouldn't hesitate to write to them IMO if the situation arose.

A good reason for Paul not signing his name, or for not following his usual signature writing style was, I believe, his desire for anonymity. Many Jews, having been misinformed against this "anti-Jewish" apostate (as far as they knew) would recoil at reading anything from them. I believe this was Paul's way of at least getting a fair hearing from them.

BTW, my reason for thinking that Paul wrote this is 2 Peter 3:15-16 (Emphasis added):

And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you;

As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.

Notice the two groups of Scripture that Peter speaks of:

Verse 15: Those things that Paul wrote to the same people that Peter is writing to ("hath written unto you").

Verse 16: This second group, "as also in all his epistles", includes what was referred to in verse 15, but also, by clear implication, other epistles, epistles of a different sort - not written specifically to these people. These would be, by elimination, Paul's letters to specific churches and individuals.

So who are the ones Paul was writing to in verse 15? The same ones Peter was writing to in both his epistles. This apostle to the Jews writing to "the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia", 1 Peter 1:1.

Peter's letters to these people are these two epistles of his.
Paul's, I firmly believe, is his epistle "Hebrews".

 

For the rest of my answer to these comments, see below. But as far as the LXX is concerned, Paul does not quote exclusively from it in this epistle. According to my Greek NT I count 6 or 7 quotes from the LXX, the others (over 30) are not. His proportion of LXX quotations to the Hebrew version is roughly the same as Peter's in his epistles to (in my opinion) this same readership.

 

Possibly, although I don't think it's enough to say he didn't. Good arguments have been made for Pauline authorship. Also, difference in style is not enough to say he didn't write Hebrews.

 

IMO the doctrinal audience of Hebrews is far more important than the author.
It makes little difference who penned it because the Holy Spirit wrote it.

 

Thanks for your perspective, Tom.

To quote a famous president, I remain agnostic on the issue.

 

You're welcome. It made sense to me when I first came across it.