The Bread of Life (or Why I am KJV Only)

If the KJV is manna for the English-speaking people, where is the manna for the 3/4 of the world that does not speak or read English? Are they condemned to die without an 'authoritative' copy of God's Word in their own language?

 

How can you make this statement?
All your doing when you say "That's not what such and such a verse means... the greek say's..."
All you greek tweekers do is debase and discredit THE KJBIBLE.
All you that are leaning on your own understanding about the heek and grebrew.
Please write your response (if there is any) in greek or hebrew please. I won't be able to understand it. But, since we need the greek and hebrew to understand the Bible/english why not use it all the time!
Right?:thumbsup:
I'm sorry I don't buy it:thumbs:

 

I don't think going back to the greek is correcting the KJV, it is defining the words in the KJV..

For instance we have heard the arguments about the different meanings of "love" in Greek....
GOing back to the Greek in this instance does not destroy, or weaken the word "love" in the KJV. Going back just helps define it.

That is why I go back to the Greek... not to disprove the word in the KJV, but to explain it.

 

The KJV also says: Revelation 6:9And when he had opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of them that were slain for the word of God, and for the testimony which they held:

10And they cried with a loud voice, saying, How long, O Lord, holy and true, dost thou not judge and avenge our blood on them that dwell on the earth?

11And white robes were given unto every one of them; and it was said unto them, that they should rest yet for a little season, until their fellowservants also and their brethren, that should be killed as they were, should be fulfilled.



The "beasts" are just what the text says...living beings. They represent nothing but themselves. As with your 'manna' argument, it leads back to Square One.

 

James Newman:I find that odd, I am certainly not the first one to connect manna with the word of God.

But you're trying to take it one step further, connecting it with the KJV only. And you've put the cart before the horse. To connect it with the KJV, you FIRST hafta prove the KJV is the ONLY valid English Bible version. Back to Square One.

Manna was to feed the Israelites until they entered Canaan. Canaan is typical of the kingdom of God.

BUUZZ! Not!

Canaan was fulla evil people. That's why God gave that land to the Israelis in the first place. No evil shall ever enter the KOG, let alone already be there awaiting us.


When we have entered into that canaan, then I expect we will not need manna any longer.

Psalm 119:89
For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven.

 

James_NewmanThe souls under the altar do not have bodies until the resurrection. The beasts and elders have been raptured. These are not the same people. So what?

So what? Evidently the living beings before God's throne are among the highest of created beings. There's not one blip of Scripture saying they were raptured.

Revelation 5:6 And I beheld, and, lo, in the midst of the throne and of the four beasts, and in the midst of the elders, stood a Lamb as it had been slain, having seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven Spirits of God sent forth into all the earth.

I doubt you believe Jesus is a literal Lamb with seven eyes and seven horns. But that is just what the text says.

John knew Jesus face-to-face. He somehow knew this Lamb was Jesus,(as it had been slain) but John didn't just make this description up. I believe you know Revelation switches from symbolism to literal to symbolism again several times. Again, back to Square One.

 

I leave it. Your "types" are actually "STRETCHES".

Again, even if your types were correct, you cannot apply them to the KJV alone w/o FIRST proving the KJV is the ONLY valid English Bible version.

 

James_NewmanThe first step is admitting you have a problem.

I have no problem...YOU do, in proving the KJV is the only valid English bible version. Until then, your types are stretches of private interpretation. Your problem is to meet your "burden of proof".

 

James_NewmanThe way John knew the Lamb was Jesus is the same way you know. The 4 beasts and the 24 Elders said so.

Revelation 5:9
9 And they sung a new song, saying, Thou art worthy to take the book, and to open the seals thereof: for thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation;

Of course the Lamb is Jesus. John never said 'and I knew the Lamb was Jesus somehow.' The symbol is interpretted for you. Just as the symbol of the beasts is interpretted for you. They sang that 'the Lamb' was slain to redeem THEM.

Then please tell us who the beasts are. The elders could be some great saints of the past, but obviously these "beasts" are very high-ranking created beings who are higher in honor and authority than the archangels, as they are continually in God's presence.(Cherubim? Seraphim?)



There is your interpretation. You don't get to just pick and choose what is literal and what is symbolic when the bible has already interpretted it for you.

Then you oughtta practice what you preach. You're doing the same thing by your manna vs quails analogy. Your "take" is no more valid than my "take".

 

The KJV's OT is based upon the Hebrew & Aramaic texts, while the NT is based upon Greek texts. If the translation isn't the best possible, it needs explained.

 

Am I ever going to get an answer???

 

There hasn't been , nor will be a better translation of the Bible in English due to the simple fact that evil men a seducers shall wax worse and wosre: It's called the degradation that sin causes upon all mankind.

Man reached his epitomy and climax in and about the 17th century AD in literary grace, everything since has been degraded into what we call modern English today. Alot more words, alot more science, but fewer understandings.

The more man grows in his own wisdom, the less he knows God. We live in that era today as men explain away the Bible.

 

So, what you're saying is that since 1611 it is impossible for God to work through those who serve Him. Doesn't this limit God?