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The desire of the righteous shall be granted

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Jope, Aug 13, 2013.

  1. Jope

    Jope Member
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    Aug 11, 2012
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    "the desire of the righteous shall be granted" (Proverbs 10:24b, KJV).​

    This proverb states the same thing that 1 John 5:14-15 states. It says that the desire of the righteous shall be granted (the desire must be a righteous desire if it is coming from a righteous person). If it is a righteous desire, then it must be in accordance with God's will.

    Is there an exception to this, based on passages like 2 Corinthians 12:7-10 & 2 Samuel 12:16-18 though?

    2 Corinthians 12, NASB
    7 Because of the surpassing greatness of the revelations, for this reason, to keep me from exalting myself, there was given me a thorn in the flesh, a messenger [demon] of Satan to torment me—to keep me from exalting myself! 8 Concerning this I implored the Lord three times that it might leave me. 9 And He has said to me, “My grace is sufficient for you, for power is perfected in weakness.” Most gladly, therefore, I will rather boast about my weaknesses, so that the power of Christ may dwell in me. 10 Therefore I am well content with weaknesses, with insults, with distresses, with persecutions, with difficulties, for Christ’s sake; for when I am weak, then I am strong.

    2 Samuel 12, NASB
    16 David therefore inquired of God for the child; and David fasted and went and lay all night on the ground. 17 The elders of his household stood beside him in order to raise him up from the ground, but he was unwilling and would not eat food with them. 18 Then it happened on the seventh day that the child died. And the servants of David were afraid to tell him that the child was dead, for they said, “Behold, while the child was still alive, we spoke to him and he did not listen to our voice. How then can we tell him that the child is dead, since he might do himself harm!”​

    Were Paul's and David's desire granted?

    Maybe a way to interpret these are:

    (1), with Paul, maybe his desire, unknown to him, wasn't a righteous one in wanting the demon to depart from him (and thus be healed of his infirmity). Maybe he realized this after he prayed, and God said to him that this infirmity was necessary for righteousness.

    (2), with David, maybe his desire was granted in that the child was granted eternal life ("I shall go to him" - 2 Sam. 12:23, KJV), so David's prayer that the child would not experience death was granted in that he won't experience the second death. David's prayer was unrealistic if he prayed that the child would not die (every person, in that dispensation, was appointed to die, in contrast to our dispensation, if the rapture is a skip of death - 1 Cor. 15:51-52).
    #1 Jope, Aug 13, 2013
    Last edited by a moderator: Aug 13, 2013
  2. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Mar 4, 2011
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    When considering a range of possible meanings of a verse or passage, looking at the other passages addressing the same topic is necessary.

    He fulfills the desires of those who fear Him;
    He hears their cry for help and saves them. (Psalm 145:19)

    So the desire of the righteous, might not refer to each and every desire that is in accord with God's will, but might refer to the overarching desire of obtaining the righteousness of God.

    When Paul says "His grace is sufficient for me" he is saying since he had received "salvation" that was sufficient, making small potatoes of the afflictions of this world.

    The passage concerning David's loss of a child reinforces this view.