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The ESV Got It Wrong At Phil 1:6!

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by TCGreek, Dec 4, 2007.

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  1. TCGreek

    TCGreek New Member

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    1. At Phil 1:6 ESV translates αχρι as "at." I find this to be misleading.

    2. For example, the NASB has "until" for the same preposition αχρι.

    3. Both are conveying two different ideas here.
     
    #1 TCGreek, Dec 4, 2007
  2. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    It's not misleading, just not as 'in your face' about the process occuring.
    Both sentences convey the same thought.

    In Philippians, the process has already been defined as starting, we know the work of God is a process.

    The use of “at” is merely proper English for the sentence construction.

    Personally I prefer the NIV and Holman's CSB rendition of the verse better than the ESV.

    Examine Acts 20:6. …‘after [achri] 5 days’ a point of completion was achieved.

    Rob
     
    #2 Deacon, Dec 4, 2007
  3. Jerome

    Jerome Well-Known Member
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    The ESV is based the National Council of Churches' Revised Standard Version; it revised very little in this verse:

    mainline RSV
    And I am sure that he who began a good work in you will bring it to completion at the day of Jesus Christ.

    evangelical ESV, revisions in bold
    And I am sure of this, that he who began a good work in you will bring it to completion at the day of Jesus Christ.
     
    #3 Jerome, Dec 4, 2007
  4. TCGreek

    TCGreek New Member

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    1. Here's the HCSB at Phil 1:6:

    "I am sure of this, that He who started a good work in you will carry it on to completion until the day of Christ Jesus."

    2. Here's the ESV:

    "And I am sure of this, that he who began a good work in you will bring it to completion at the day of Jesus Christ."

    3. Why then do you prefer the reading in the NIV and HCSB?


    4. "After [meta] the days of unleaven bread... and within [achri] we came to...

    Maybe just stylistic on Luke's part, but I see no reason to render achri as "after" here.
     
    #4 TCGreek, Dec 4, 2007
  5. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    Why then do you prefer the reading in the NIV and HCSB?

    Why? Because I like the more transparent translations and am willing to sacrifice some of the finer aspects a smooth reading text.

    The phrase in the ESV, “… he who began a good work in you will bring it to completion at the day…” emphasizes that there is an endpoint with full completion.

    I believe this better conveys the meaning of the text, particularly the Greek word, έπιτελέω [to cause to happen, with the purpose of some end result—‘to accomplish, to bring about’ Louw & Nida,. (1996, c1989). Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament (1:160)].

    The AV’s translation of Phil 1:6 could mean that the continuing task was abandoned at the day of Jesus Christ whether or not it was completed (of course it's textual note does convey this meaning [Or, will finish it. 1 Sam. 3. 12 (Gk.)]).

    So, to finally answer your question, both the NIV and the Holman CSB convey this thought in the text while still employing the more awkward use of “until” (which is in the proper literal 'word for word' translation of the Greek text in question).

    Rob
     
    #5 Deacon, Dec 4, 2007
  6. JFox1

    JFox1 New Member

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    The Modern Language Bible renders Philippians 1:6: Of this I am convinced, that He who has begun a good work in you will bring it to completion in the day of Christ Jesus.

    The Interlinear Greek-English NT by Alfred Marshall uses "until."
     
    #6 JFox1, Dec 5, 2007
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