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"The King James Bible is Perfect Without a Single Error!"

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by christianasbookshelf, Jun 30, 2008.

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  1. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    ....and soon to follow: the rubuttal and denial of the word of God!
     
  2. Thinkingstuff

    Thinkingstuff Active Member

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    Sorry I'm not getting the reference. Dale Carnegie I know...
     
  3. Thinkingstuff

    Thinkingstuff Active Member

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    I'm not sure what you mean. The verse you quoted was:

    What does that have to do with the KJV? Are you saying the KJV is the only text that fulfills this scripture? If so how do you prove it? Surely not on the TR text which has errors.
     
  4. Squire Robertsson

    Squire Robertsson Administrator
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    Remembering back to the days of yester-year. I became acquainted with Mr. Ruckman's publication "The Bible Believer's Bulletin" back in the late 1970s. The kindest observation I can make about it is it was vitriolic. The men mentioned are known for their sanpaper personalities. However, I agree with the comparison.
     
  5. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    I was wondering how long it would take- we made it a day and a half before this showed up.:laugh:
     
  6. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    Don't have to "prove" anything, just believe and STAND!

    Just keep reading it over and over and try to deny what it says, dare you!
     
  7. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    Hmmmm, was that a day and a half without knowing God preserved his word?
     
  8. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    And with what grade grit was that comment made?:laugh:
     
  9. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    No- it was a day and a half without someone twisting God's word to try to make it say something it does not.
     
  10. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    So it doesn't say his words are pure? Is that really what you mean?

    Seems more to twisting them when you think it says anything else.:laugh:
     
  11. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    I've always been amazed that it wasn't until I encountered those who promote new versions that Ps 12:6,7 could have meant anything other than what it clearly says.

    We "need" the scholars to prove us "wrong" in what we already have come to know about God!:laugh:

    "Hath God said?" ring any bells??


    I mean, the first time I read it as a child of God I knew it meant God keeps his word and forever settled in Heaven, then I met those who say that God only kept those poor and needy from the oppressors and trealized by that ideal that God doesn't preserve the poor and needy and subjects them to the oppressors.

    Gee, and I thought God loves the poor and needy and relieves them from oppression!:godisgood:
     
  12. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    You already know this, better men than myself have tried to help you understand so I won't waste a lot of time on this.....

    It does NOT say, "The words of the KJV are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.
    Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from 1611 for ever."


    But that is what you try to make them to say.
     
  13. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    I apologize for getting the thread off-track. I will comment no further.
     
  14. Thinkingstuff

    Thinkingstuff Active Member

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    That is not answering my question. I asked if you believe that the KJV was the ONLY translation that fulfills the scripture you quoted? If you do how do you substantiate it? Just believe that only the KJV is correct? What are you saying?

    Because I question the Text it was translated from as not being pritinely perfect is not the same as denying what it says! In fact I'm coming to think ( I definately know this will offend people but it is my perseption) that the KJO are just as dogmatic (and without just as much support) as are catholics about the immaculate conception. I'm supprised I haven't heard the Term Immaculate KJB. You must believe in the Immaculate KJB and say a novina to the KJB.:laugh: Translations are just that translation. KJB is not pristine. You know Jesus didn't use the KJB. I hope that doesn't suprise people. I believe in God's word from the NIV just as much. I'm ranting a bit sorry I get carried away. Despite KJO peoples dogmatism I like the version very much and use it. But I don't believe it is supperior to NIV or NASB ect...
     
  15. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    People lilke you (Salamander) are still trying to sell snake oil, eh?

    From earlier & elsewhere:
    --------------------------
    Salamander: //The key is Ps 12:6,7//

    Amen, Brother Salamander -- You (Salamander) can preach that all day long!

    Psa 12:5-7 (KJV1611 Edition):
    For the oppression of the poore,
    for the sighing of the needy,
    now will I arise (saith the Lord,)
    I will set him in safetie from him that ||puffeth at him.
    6 The wordes of the Lord are pure wordes:
    as siluer tried in a fornace of earth purified seuen times.
    7 Thou shalt keepe them, (O Lord,)
    thou shalt preserue + them,
    from this generation for euer.

    Margin notes:
    ||Or, would ensnare him
    +Heb. him, every one of them,

    Two types of Translater footnotes are seen in this
    passage:
    1. The alternate translation (the same Hebrew word(s)
    is(are) being translated -- uses the word 'Or'
    2. The alternate source (two different Hebrew source readings
    were available to the translators) -- uses the word
    'Heb.'

    This passage shows that the King James Version Translators had available to them multiple Original Languauge sources. Proof positive that God can bless more than one version in the same language.

    If a person had read the REAL KJV instead of some CORRUPTED KJV, one would have seen that 'them' might be either the poor people or the 'wordes of God' but 'him' can only mean the same 'him's as two of the 'him' in verse 5 (the third 'him' in verse 5 is the guys that God will protect the poor & needy).
    ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


    Caveat: Only pronouns I denote apply only to Salamander should be applied only to Salamander. Anybody who misunderstands any of the above PRONOUNS to mean ONLY SALAMANDER, and thus misunderstand me (Ed) -- such a person should contact the Topic Cop (click the little yellow triange with the explanation mark (!) on it - you will be talking to the Topic cops). I am not typing this only for Salamander, but for any reader who wishes to apply those pronouns AGAINST me (Ed). I respect Brother Salamander even though he (Salamander) is a pest. -- I (Ed) can't believe I (Ed) have to write a caveat about misunderstanding pronouns in a post about misunderstanding pronouns, but experience dictates that I must. You (anybody) feel free to notify the topic cops, but I will pre-empt your (anybody) request if you badmouth me (Ed). Thank you.
     
  16. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    We did a thread on this quite some time ago: http://www.baptistboard.com/showthread.php?t=2568
     
  17. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Sorry, Sal; the "Psalm 12:6-7 thingie" has been debunked umpteen times. It came straight outta Dr. Wilkinson's error-filled book. And even if the KJVO interpretation of it was true, there's not one quark of reference to the KJV in it, not even as written in the KJV itself. So, you're wrong again.
     
  18. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Try reading ALL of Psalm 12, for the context. It is about the time David & Co. were fleeing from Saul & his army, & David trusted only GOD to keep him safe. and God kept His promise, as David became king, with most of his friends & family who fled from Saul with him as his assistants or army leaders. So, GOD preserved every one of them from harm by other people, as He said.

    And there's not one quark of pro-KJVO material in those verses, or,for that matter, in ANY Scripture.

    And remember the footnote for the 2nd them in V7?

    "Heb. him, I. Euery one of them."
     
  19. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Which one is forever? Words of God or the people?

    If Words of God are forever, Psalm 12:6-7 refer to the preservation of God's Words. It is how we get the Bible because the KJV is most accurate translation for English-speaking people.

    If any of you said this passages refer to the people, it is your misinterpretation!
     
  20. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    Far too many threads (do a search) on the Psalm 12 passage.
     
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