The NET Bible got me on this one...

1. I have a great deal of respect for the NET Bible, if only because of its abundance of footnoting. But here's something I found in the NET that I also noticed in my NASB: it's regarding the translation of προ χρονων αιωνιων in 2 Tim 1:9 and Titus 1:2.

2 Tim 1:9
NET: "He is the one who saved us14 and called us with a holy calling, not based on our works but on his own purpose and grace, granted to us in Christ Jesus before time began"

fn: GK “before eternal times.”

NASB: "who has saved us and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace which was granted us in Christ Jesus from all eternity."

Titus 1:2

NET: "in hope of eternal life, which God, who does not lie, promised before the ages began."

fn: Gk “before eternal ages.”

NASB: "in the hope of eternal life, which God, who cannot lie, promised long ages ago."

2. In both 2 Tim 1:9 and Titus 1:2 the preposition phrase is προ χρονων αιωνιων. Why not translate them the same? Am I missing something here?

3. Then I checked the TNIV: "in the hope of eternal life, which God, who does not lie, promised before the beginning of time" (Titus 1:2).

"who has saved us and called us to a holy life—not because of anything we have done but because of his own purpose and grace. This grace was given us in Christ Jesus before the beginning of time."

4. So the TNIV, HCSB, and the ESV are consistent in their rendering of προ χρονων αιωνιων.

5. Why the NET and the NASB chose otherwise, I don't know?

 

Hi John,

Yes, it was an oversight. In an email exchange with Dr. Wallace, the general editor of the NET, he said that it was the same guy who translated both 2 Timothy and Titus and that he made a mistake.

Tell me, translation is incredibly had work, esp. trying to produce a new version altogether.

 

John,

I believe with computer programming they can make translation of identical phrases easier.

I believe this was employed by the HCSB translators. I'm not sure.

 

The Greek is identical in both cases and so treated in the ESV, HCSB and TNIV.

 

Not at all! When the context warrants an identical translation, then it should be such.

Your point is well taken with sarx.

For example, I pointed out 2 Tim 1:9 and Tit 1:2 to Dr. Wallace, gen. editor of the NET and he quite agree that the prepositional phrase, which is identical, should be translated the same.

In fact, he said he was going to pass it on to the person who worked on the PE.

 

That's good stuff!

Well, I've viewed a clip on the HCSB and its gen. editor Dr. Blum, a Presbyterian, mentioned that.