The "One-Woman Man" - Who is He?

First to say that the statement "A Pastor cannot be unmarried" is simply not true. I was a pastor and was not married. Was I qualified? Absolutely, I was blameless, in control, able to teach, etc. So, yes, I was pointing to myself as a qualified pastor was was single. We have to remember, the Bible does not disqualify single men from the pastorate. That is the point I am making. In fact, in 1 Cor 7, we must remember that Paul lauds the state of single as being more able to devote time and energy to the Lord's work. As I said, I can testify from experience that what Paul said was true.

Yes and possibly (though very very improbable). I would suggest a scenario in which it might be possible. A man marries at 20 and divorces at 21. He get saved when he is 25. He moves 1000 miles away. He grows in Christ, marries a godly lady, raises a godly family, has a testimony that is blameless in the church and community. He shows an ability to teach and has sound doctrine. His family is under control. He lives a blameless and faithful life for 30 years. Now at the age of 55, a church calls him to pastor. I think he could be said to be blameless, which is what the qualification is.

Thanks for the citations of versions. I did not have all those.

 

Chet,

You correctly quote the ESV as saying "an overseer must be above reproach, the husband of one wife" (1Tim.3:2), but I would add two things. First, there is a note that gives an alternative translation which reads "Or a man of one woman; also verse 12". Second, in the introductory section of the ESV which gives an Explanation of the Features Included in this Editition, it explains that, with regard to notes giving alternative translations, "the translation deemed to have the stronger support is in the text while the other possible renderings are given in the note". So the ESV clearly prefers the "husband of one wife" translation. Although I am personally not so certain that it is the translation with the "stronger support", I am also not one to easily set aside the collective judgment of all the best English translations.

Just thought you would like to have the additional information in support of your point.

Pastork

 

Pastork Thanks for the information on ESV. I did not even look at the notes. My apologies to Pastor Larry also for not even looking at them.

Pastor Larry Please forgive me if I am still not quite understanding your reasoning:

Please understand that I am not in disagreement with you, I am trying to figure all this out myself. I have not come to any conclusions yet. But I am just uncertain on your using yourself as a proof that a person can be single or unmarried and still be Pastor according to the Bible. Which I am fairly certain your right, a single man can be a pastor, and according to Paul in 1 Cor. 7 a better one. I just don't understand how you can point to yourself as proof of that. Yes you served as a single pastor, but does that prove the qualifications to be in accordance with your understanding 1 Timothy because you were single? Maybe I am not communicating my question well.

Thanks.

 

Sorry to be unclear. First I was addressing the basic statement (without regard for right or wrong) about a single man being a pastor. It can happen. The statement made earlier was that a single cannot be a pastor (rather than "should not"). That is what I was addressing. Then I affirmed that I as a single pastor was not unbiblical to be such because the Bible does not forbid single men from pastoring. IN other words, I am not using myself as proof of being right (only as proof of single pastors being in existence). I am using Scripture to affirm that I was not wrong when I was a single pastor.

Is this convoluted or what??? Sorry to be unclear.

 

Only for me . But I understand you perfectly now. Thanks. Again I really enjoyed this thread. Learning a lot.

 

If this is true that 'the husband of one wife' really means 'one-woman-at-a-time', meaning that monogamy is to practiced over polygamy, then this speaks to me and emphasizes the high degree to which our own culture (western/North American) has for the most part been 'salted', at least in certain aspects, by the Christian ethic.

What I mean is that even a large portion of 'non-believers' and 'non-Christian' culture at large has traditionally suppported this ethic to the point that it is the 'norm', the 'exptectation', and the overall moral standard.

 

Agreed. The next question would then be, what exactly are the biblical grounds for divorce? Without getting too legalistic about it. Jesus address this in Matthew 19:

Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery."

Is there any other understandable grounds that would call for divorce yet would not jeopardize a Pastor as not being blameless?