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The practicality of theological views...

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Skandelon, Nov 7, 2011.

  1. Luke2427

    Luke2427 Active Member

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    Even if that were so, the fact remains that we are dead and blind now. So we are incapable as such of making choices until we are made alive.

    No mystery there whatsoever.
     
  2. Robert Snow

    Robert Snow New Member

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    Infant baptism is one thing they did not break free of.

    Calvin declares that "infants cannot be deprived of it[baptism] without open violation of the will of God"(Inst.4, 16, 8).

    It amazes me how so many today look to these types of people for theological guidance.
     
  3. Luke2427

    Luke2427 Active Member

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    So?

    Going to church is another practice that they did not BREAK FREE from/

    Feeding the hungry and clothing the naked and housing the displaced and visiting the prisons are also Catholic Church practices the Reformers did not BREAK FREE from.

    So what?

    What kind of argument is it that says, "Well, the Reformers did not break free from every single Roman Catholic practice and therefore they are not fit to follow."?

    And just for the record- your 15th century religious moorings are almost CERTAINLY Protestant.

    I bet if you traced the church of which you are a member through history, you'd find that it spawns from Protestantism.

    Your church, this is conjecture, is probably IFB. The IFB of which you are a part PROBABLY broke off from the SBC years ago. The SBC branches of from Protestant roots and the SBC to this day claims to be the largest PROTESTANT denomination in the world.

    So, like it or not, your religious roots are probably Protestant.
     
  4. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

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    Actually, believe it or not, you and I are in agreement on this point. :thumbsup:
     
  5. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Just for the record Luke2427 and FWIW, I left the Church of Rome partially (and a large part at that) because of my perceived error on their part concerning the ordinances or what they call "the sacraments".

    I found that most of the churches of the Reformation tried a nominal doctrinal correction but none really went the full route.

    Upon researching the teachings and resultant church entities associated with Calvin (The Institutes) and company, as well as Luther were still trying to "reform" the church and IMO appeared to be somewhat ambivalent about the "sacraments" their meaning, necessity and pupose.

    Consequently this weakness led me to other alternatives.

    For that reason I departed from them as well and chose the Baptist distinctives as this difference was IMO foundational Scripture truth.

    However finding this error in so foundational truth as the meaning and purpose of the ordinances I felt their other teachings were at least suspect.


    HankD
     
  6. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

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    Ok, so when is the molestation of a child ever "not evil?"

    What possible "motive" does the doer of that "deed" need to have for that "deed" to not be deemed "evil?"

    Luke, this concept that a deed is only evil when the motive is impure is unfounded. A lie is always a lie, even if the the teller of that lie is unaware of it. The motive doesn't change what is true and what is false. And scripture tells us that God cannot lie. Thus God does not do "IT" (the deed of lying), even for a good motive. You are just simply WRONG and I would think even Reformed folks here would call you out on this error.

    How do you say on the one hand that God does do the deed (lie, murder, molest, etc) but doesn't do evil? Why not just consistently keep saying, He does it ALL but its ALL good because HE does it for the right motive? Murder's are good, lies are good, molestations are good...Why? Because God did them for a good motive. That is what you are saying by concluding that God "does the deed." Historically, Reformers have denied that God "does the deed" but you take a different approach by redefining the deed as being good if the motive is good.

    Luke, I've explained over and over the difference in God "decretive decree" and his "permissive decree" and when I attempted to get you to acknowledge that you said, "The word "allow" and the IDEA of allowance is not in the text ANYWHERE." "God does not just allow these things" -Luke

    And I have always acknowledged that you don't believe 'God does evil' by also quoting your qualifications regarding God's motive in 'doing a deed." But what you fail to understand is that I believe a deed in itself can be inherently evil (a lie is a lie, molestation is evil, etc) and the 'evilness' of a deed is not always determined by the motive of the doer. Thus, it MAY appear to you that I'm saying that you believe God does evil, when really what I'm attempting to argue is that the deed you are saying God does IS ITSELF INHERENTLY EVIL SO STOP SAYING HE DID IT!!!! See the difference?
     
    #66 Skandelon, Nov 12, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Nov 12, 2011
  7. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

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    This method of biblical proof texting is tantamount to me quoting something like, "...and Judas went out and hung himself..." "...go and do likewise..." "...what thou doeth, doeth quickly...." It is absurd. You must know the circumstances of the passage and the issue being addressed by the author in his historical context.

    As I've told you before, if you read the context the person asking that question is the hardened Jew (a rebellious Jew that God held out his hand to all day long. Rm. 10:21), not the non-elect reprobate born in a hopeless condition destined to hell, as you wrongly presume upon the text.

    And, yes, it is a question coming from a carnal frame of reference, but unless you acknowledge what that frame of reference actually was then you can't understand the author's intent. So, while the question is a carnal frame of reference, it is not the one you have imposed on the text (i.e. a man is born non-elect and without any hope). It is the carnal view of a rebellious man who has been blinded in his rebellion to accomplish a redemptive purpose, but who may be provoked to envy and saved once God accomplishes that redemptive purpose. Reading past Romans 9 and on into 10 and 11 will make this truth abundantly clear.
     
  8. Luke2427

    Luke2427 Active Member

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    What we call child molestation is that which evil men do with evil intentions.

    Child molestation is always evil because those who do it are evil and do it with evil intentions.

    The deed is not evil because the deed has no personality. The man who does the deed is evil. A deed can be no more evil than a dog can. But it is proper to say that a deed is evil so long as we understand that what we mean is that an evil person with evil motives did the deed. A deed can technically not be evil or good in itself any more than a deed can think, or feel, or believe, or decide.

    Can things which have no personality be good or evil? No. But it is not wrong to say that a deed is evil when we mean by that that the deed CONSISTS of evil people doing the deed with evil motives.

    That's why God can afflict Job as well as Satan and not be doing evil.

    Child molestation is always evil because it, by defintion, consists of an evil person with an evil motive.

    Sex, however, which is the actual ACT of which child molestation consists, is NOT always evil. It is not evil for a man to have sex with his wife because his motive can be wholesome and righteous. If that same man were to seek to have sex with a small child then his motive cannot be wholesome and righteous. His motive is now evil as I will establish below.

    Sex is the act- it is amoral.
    What takes the act and turns it into child molestation is when a man has this wicked motive: to abuse the innocence of a child for self gratification. He does this by the amoral act of sex but that motive is what makes child molestation, child molestation. The evil of his motive projects onto the ACT and makes it evil (although we understand wherein the evil lies- not in the act of sex but in the heart of the man who abuses the child).
     
    #68 Luke2427, Nov 12, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Nov 12, 2011
  9. Luke2427

    Luke2427 Active Member

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    First of all, what text were we discussing in which I said that it was not present?

    Secondly, I stand by the remark with almost ALL the Reformed Faith that God does not ever JUST allow something.

    Thirdly, what you have done is bald faced lied about what I meant by "IT".

    You are under moral and ethical obligation to withdraw those remarks of yours and apologize to me publicly.
     
  10. Earth Wind and Fire

    Earth Wind and Fire Well-Known Member
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    Now Im not trying to be rude here to you Hank, I do respect your opinion ....but arent you saying your individual propensity is to throw the baby out with the bathwater?
     
  11. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

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    Luke, if you go back to our original discussion we were talking about the origin of evil and God's decree of whatsoever comes to pass, remember?

    I appealed to J. Dahmer's henious crimes as something God would never cause/do/desire, though clearly he permitted them, remember?

    Your rebuttal was to appeal to the crucifixion as even a worse evil than the sins of Dahmer. You concluded, "The crucifixion of the Son of God is a far worse sin and the thought originated in eternity past in the secret council halls of the infinite and holy wisdom of God. Since there is nothing that ever happens apart from God's ordering of events so that it will come to pass, and since we understand the Word of God teaches that the worst sin ever committed was determined in eternity past by God- it should be no problem for you to see that God has determined all things including those far lesser evils committed by Dahmer.
    God kills and God makes alive. Did Dahmer kill those people? Yes. Did God kill them? God's own testimony: "I kill and I make alive."- Luke


    Now, what is the difference if we replace the word "kill" with the word "molest," Luke?

    This is what lead to the whole "God does the deed, but it's not evil" discourse. Yet, now you are saying God doesn't do the 'deed' in the case of molestation, but he did do the deed in the case of murder? What's the difference in a system where he "determines whatsoever comes to pass?"

    That presumes two things. (1) God doesn't do the deed, which you have claimed that ultimately he does all deeds (see quotes above) and (2) the motive originated with the person and not God, something else you system rejects as a possibility given that it would require God is informed by something he didn't himself originate.
     
    #71 Skandelon, Nov 12, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Nov 12, 2011
  12. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

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    We were discussing Edwards quote and the argument over the origin of evil. I don't believe any specific text was in question. You've always rejected the idea of God's permitting of evil unless it was accompanied by his determining it as well.

    I'm getting tired of you calling me a liar when I quote you verbatim, including your convoluted qualifications of 'evil deeds' not being 'evil' when God does them for the right motive. As I explained to you already, it MAY appear to you that I'm saying that you believe God does evil, when really what I'm attempting to argue is that the deed you are saying God does IS ITSELF INHERENTLY EVIL. There is a difference, Luke. If I believe lying is inherently evil and you believe God does the deed of lying then I am going to argue that you are making God do evil, even though you don't believe lying is evil if done in the right motive. If you can't follow that, blame yourself because you have created this convoluted mess with all your misstatements.

    If you can prove my motive is evil then I will, otherwise my deeds are pure. :smilewinkgrin:
     
  13. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Ha, Ha EWF, That's a great pun (bathwater - baptism), was it intentional?

    :)

    But, to the serious element in the question: I certainly understand the importance of the ordinances and to an extent sympathize with fellow believers though we might disagree with definitions.

    HankD
     
  14. MB

    MB Well-Known Member

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    This is so typical claiming everyone has descended from the Catholic church. There has always been members of the body of Christ. It is they the RCC who got it's start from us in 325 ad. The romans couldn't kill enough of us so they put on a charade as if they were joining us then started making such bogus claims of being the first church. Nothing but lies come from the Catholic Church. Secular history has proven them wrong time after time. I knew this to be true by the time I left the 5 th grade.
    MB
     
  15. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    Yes, many believe the RCC is the great harlot in Revelation 17;

    Rev 17:4 And the woman was arrayed in purple and scarlet colour, and decked with gold and precious stones and pearls, having a golden cup in her hand full of abominations and filthiness of her fornication:
    5 And upon her forehead was a name written, MYSTERY, BABYLON THE GREAT, THE MOTHER OF HARLOTS AND ABOMINATIONS OF THE EARTH.

    The official symbol of the RCC is a woman with a golden cup in her hand.

    [​IMG]

    Notice the golden cup in the hand of the woman. What Luke fails to realize is that this harlot is the "mother of harlots", in other words, other false apostate churches come out of her.
     
  16. ituttut

    ituttut New Member

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    Skandelon, have found this thread to be interesting (really all are) with well thought process being shown by posters. I have a question to one of your posts to MB, and not at this time trying to get into the debate as to be liberalistic, compatibilistic, or Calvinism vs. Arminianism, to show what is determined as to voluntary, or involuntary.

    Referring to your above "how he was created...it is his instinct", I was just wondering if God, who does not change, but does change things to bring about His will, would change, or bolster your position. I believe Genesis 1 and 9, will show us that God changed the diet of certain animals, and man.
     
  17. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

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    I'm not sure I understand your question. Are you asking if I believe God could intervene to change men's instinctive desires in order to bring about his purpose? Maybe you could expound?
     
  18. ituttut

    ituttut New Member

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    Thanks for contemplating. I evidently worded poorly. This was meant to be rhetorical as your assumption there was no change from the beginning. As a change was made from the beginning, I was just wondering as you had not taken into consideration that a change had been made; hence my query of would this change, or bolster you position.
     
  19. Luke2427

    Luke2427 Active Member

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    The difference is the word kill is amoral. It can be good or bad based on motive. Molest includes motive.
     
  20. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

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    Then why did you appeal to the crucifixion as the worse of all evils as proof that God has determined ALL things when now you appear to being saying that he doesn't determine molestation in the same manner he does murder? Please expound.

    Plus, molesting may not include motive. Someone can be forced at gun point to molest another, for instance. Either way, it leaves you in the same predicament.
     
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