The Proclamation of God Concerning Jehoiakim

Jer 36:30 Therefore thus saith the LORD of Jehoiakim king of Judah; He shall have none to sit upon the throne of David: and his dead body shall be cast out in the day to the heat, and in the night to the frost.

I claim no scholarship of any kind, and will say at the onset of this discussion that I am going to approach this issue from the position of a layman with the help of the Holy Spirit and the thoughts of other men that have sparked my thinking and ideas as to this issue.
Before we delve too far into this issue, I would like to ask the list to consider this question. When God pronounces a particular prophetic utterance concerning someone or a group of individuals, does this mean that it is set is stone and that nothing can or will stay His hand in the execution of that which he has at one moment declared as something that will take place in the future? I believe this question might possibly lie at the heart of any consideration of the proclamation of God in question.

The next thought I would interject into this discussion is, would it be in wisdom to start the notions one has from that which we are told is written in stone penned by the hand of God as the way things are, and them work from this solid basis backwards to the more obscure and unsettled issues that may in fact be completely altered due to other circumstances one might not be taking into proper consideration? We have the fact that indeed Jesus did come from the posterity of Joseph, and that as such He was the rightful heir to the throne of David just as the purpose of the two genealogies in Matt and Luke clearly state if taken at face value. If we could just for a moment lay aside all presuppositions of original sin, and just take at face value the fact of the lineage given and to the throne of King David to which it laid rightful claim to, it would be a great start on the road to the truth. It would illuminate the uncertainty of any possible connection of Jehoiakim and the proclamation concerning him found in the OT and that of Christ’s direct ties to the lineage and throne of King David found in the NT.

 

I am trying to address the issue that has been raised by BD17 of the proclamation against Jehoiakim by God. BD17 tried to establish that because of the proclamation by God against Jehoiakim and his sons not being allowed to sit on the throne of David, that Joseph, being a descendant of Jehoikim had no right to be considered as a rightful heir to the throne of David. (as I understood him)

I am trying to draw a parallel by other statements of God that were obviously abated in any absolute sense due to circumstances or attitudes that have been exhibited subsequent to one of God’s pronouncements, that effectively set aside what might be termed any rigid and absolute notions concerning the original statement by God. Some actions of men subsequent to a particular pronouncement have effectively set aside the original absolute intent of a statement or pronouncement of God.

Does this make sense to the list as one possible reason why Joseph could have indeed been in the lineage of a being a rightful heir to the throne of David, even as a descendant from the line of Jehoiakim? Does the possibility exist that God could have set aside His original pronouncement due to repentance or special faith shown by a descendant of Jehoiakim, which made room for God to lift the impact of that original pronouncement?