Featured The Sabbath Law

Again you are trying to wiggle out of the clearly stated scriptures. These scriptures did not say "seventh day" or "seventh day of the week." Your argument is not valid as it does not deny the "first day" sabbath in these passages at all.

This was your response when I merely quoted Rev. 1:10. This is your response when I give full exposition with complete irrefutable Biblical and historical evidence. Is this the best you can do????? Your argument is lame!

Thank you! These historical quotes support my position not yours! Again they define the Lord's day to be the resurrection day and thus Rev. 1:10 is the resurrection day. Of course it is the day "after the Sabbath" meaning the JEWISH Sabbath.

 

It is obvious that both you and GE have seared consciences and no amount of evidence will turn you from the false Saturdarian doctrine. All we are doing is going in circles. I have better things to do than to argue with people who have no intention of being objective, honest or trustworthy with the evidence. It is an exercise of futility.

 

For those readers with more objective minds. There is a simple reason why the words "of the week" cannot be found in any record of Sabbath law. The reason is that God applies Sabbath Law not only to other days "of the week" than the Seventh day but to greater periods than a 24 hour day. Hence, the proper interpretation of the Sabbath law must be INCLUSIVE of all Divine applications as any interpretation more restrictive condemns God's own use of Sabbath Law.

The Sabbath Law demands that only six equal divisions of time precede and follow the Seventh Sabbath, whether it is a 24 hour sabbath or a month, year or millennium Sabbath. This interpretation justifies application of the Sabbath Law to a FIXED DATE Sabbath as in Levitius 23 or a FIXED DAY sabbath as in the Jewish application under the Old Covenant to the seventh day "of the week" or the New covenant application - first day of the week Sabbath.

The Messianic Feasts in Levitius 23 and 25 all place emphasis upon a Sabbath that falls on another day "of the week" than the Seventh day Jewish Sabbath. The emphasis falls on 1st, 8th, 15th and 22nd days of the month none of which are the seventh day "of the week" Sabbaths. The Messanic prophecy of Psalm 118:24 predicts a new Sabbath observance in connection with God's work of raising Christ from the grave (Psa. 118:20-24 with Acts 4:10-11).

The Jewish seventh day of the week Sabbath has its final fulfillment in this SIN CURSED EARTH final seventh millennium while the new covenant first day of the week has its final fulfillment in the eighth and eternal millennium of a NEW HEAVEN and a NEW EARTH where again, God can look upon all the works of his hands and again say, "very good." The New Covenant Sabbath commemorates a BETTER and GREATER work than the first creation - the word of redemption and a BETTER and GREATER new heaven and earth. It is a BETTER Sabbath without any of the Mosaic Sabbath legislation that encumbered man under the Old Covenant but is a day that we are commanded to "rejoice and be glad in it" (Psa. 118:24). It is the "Lord's Day" for worship at the "house of God" and a witness to the world of the resurrection victory over death, hell and the grave and thus the hope of the Christian. The "Lord's Day" is the greatest visible testimony of the Christian hope that God has given His people. It his HIS day distinct from all the other days of the week as it does not say "the Lord's DAYS" plural but singular - and thus we should treat it as "the Lord's" just as we treat His Supper as "the Lord's" Supper.

 

GE you are doing the same thing as Ryan - NO SUBSTANCE - only name calling. I did provide substance and lots of it. Is this the best you can do?

 

How desperate are you???? My position is clearly stated and it seems you and GE are the only one who cannot understand it. The very nature of my position accepts the application to the seventh day "of the week" EQUALLY with the first day "of the week" or any other day "of the week." What is it that you don't understand about my position???

Somehow in your twisted little mind you think that admission that it was applied to the seventh day "of the week" is some how an admission of error on my part????????????

You forgot someone else! God! Or don't you recall how the 23rd chapter opens???? Let me remind you:

1 ¶ And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying,
2 Speak unto the children of Israel, and say unto them, Concerning the feasts of the LORD, which ye shall proclaim to be holy convocations, even these are my feasts.
3 Six days shall work be done: but the seventh day is the sabbath of rest, an holy convocation; ye shall do no work therein: it is the sabbath of the LORD in all your dwellings.

And did I forget to remind you how he closes this chapter also?

38 Beside the sabbaths of the LORD, and beside your gifts, and beside all your vows, and beside all your freewill offerings, which ye give unto the LORD.

Oh yes, and there is the little fact that "sabbaths" have no meaning apart from the law of the sabbath.

You can't see the forest for the tree in your face. These two facts are merely the beginning of many other contextual irrefutable facts:

C. These are all Messanic in type in regard to the first coming and public administraton of the New Covenant.

D. The numbers chose do not correspond with the Seventh day of the week Sabbath as in 7th 14th, 21st, 28th but correspond with the first day of the week sabbath as in 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, 50th

E. The Sabbath closes and yet introduces six working days just as the seventh month is also the first month of the Jewish new year, and opens with the first day Sabbath, and so seven and first are not incompatible but both are inseparable in the Sabbath Law.

 

They were talking about the JEWISH application of the Sabbath which is a legitimate application of the Sabbath Law.

Ignatius is distinguishing the Jewish Sabbath from "THE LORD'S DAY"! Don't want to admit that Revelation 1:10 is applied by Ignatius to Sunday and not to the Jewish Sabbath do you???????????????

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Ignatius pastor of Antioch and companion of the Apostles in about A.D. 70 says, (Writing about 100-118 AD)

And after the observance of the Sabbath, let every friend of Christ keep the Lord’s Day as a festival, the resurrection day, the queen and chief of all the days [of the week]. Looking forward to this, the prophet declared, “To the end, for the eighth day,” on which our life both sprang up again, and the victory over death was obtained in Christ… Roberts, Alexander and Donaldson, James Editors, The Ante-Nicene Father’s, “Epistle of Ignatius to the Magnesians” Vol. I, p. 63
http://www.baptistboard.com/showthre...44#post2008344

You are shooting yourself in the foot! You are proving that BEFORE CONSTANTINE they universally saw the resurrection day as THE LORD'S DAY distinct from the JEWISH Sabbath. Thus Revelation 1:10 was viewed as SUNDAY! Now, let's see, what would the "LORD's DAY" be called prior to the cross???? That is right, it is another name for "THE SABBATH" of the Lord!!!

Isa 58:13 If thou turn away thy foot from the sabbath, from doing thy pleasure on my holy day; and call the sabbath a delight, the holy of the LORD, honourable; and shalt honour him, not doing thine own ways, nor finding thine own pleasure, nor speaking thine own words:


Readers, take note that Ellen G. White, and SDA cite tradition to assert that it was Constatine that first introduced Sunday as the "Lord's day" and day of public worship and now Bob is turning against tradition on this very subject becuase Ellen G. White is being exposes again to be wrong again. Sunday worship as the "Lord's Day" had been recognized since Ignatius a disciple of the Apostle John.

 

What you are failing to see is that name and number do not equal application as Leviticus 23-25 obviously proves that name and number do not equal application. Name and number in connection with six working days before and after = principle not application. The application varies because the principle is sufficient broad to include the various applications.

The seventh day "of the week" is one application but not the only or limited application. The first day "of the week" is another equally valid application of the very same principle.

 

You are creating the contradiction by changing my words. I never said at any time that any day could be found "in" the Sabbath commandment. There is a radical difference between saying any day can be found "in" the Sabbath command and the sabbath command may be "applied" to any date or day.

The difference is that the sabbath command and its days plural do not change as it is always six days preceding and following the seventh day Sabbath. What particular six days in the calender those six are applied to is another story. If the Sabbath is applied to the first day of the week, then there are six days preceding and following it making it the seventh day in that Sabbath pattern. Select any date on your calendar and Number six days before it and six days after it. In that pattern of days whatever date you have selected to be the Sabbath is the seventh day following and preceding those twelve days (six before and six after). If you cannot understand that, then I cannot help you.

The only difference is that God is the one who selects the date or day and not you (Psa. 118:24).

 

Obviously you either do not understand what I have said or you do and your intentionally attempting to create diversion and confusion. The latter is most probable.

 

You are confusing the Sabbath Law PRINCIPLE of six days (equal periods of time- 24hours, months, years, etc.) preceding and following the Seventh day Sabbath with God's arbritrary APPLICATION of that principle.

God arbritrarily applied that PRINCIPLE to DATED SABBATHS in Leviticus 23.

God arbritrarily applied that PRINCIPLE to MONTH and YEARLY SABBATHS in Leviticus 23-25

God arbritrarily applied that principle to the Jewish week prior to the cross or seventh day "of the week".

God arbitrarily applied that principle to the Christian first day of the week from the resurrection day forward - Psal 118:24/Acts 4:10-11; Rev. 1;10; etc., etc.

What I am saying is SIMPLE to understand if you don't have the FOG of SDA dogma filling your head.