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Theology In Translation?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Rippon, Nov 23, 2010.

  1. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    #41 John of Japan, Apr 5, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Apr 5, 2011
  2. ReformedBaptist

    ReformedBaptist Well-Known Member

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    Thanks for the information. Very helpful.
     
  3. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    The theory that the oldest manuscript must also be the most reliable is one used in secular textual criticism. I learned it when I was at University many years ago.

    So when one is studying the text of, say, the poems of Catullus where there are (if memory serves) only three extant manuscripts, it is reasonable to suppose that the oldest of these is likely to have been copied fewer times than the others and may therefore be more reliable.

    However, when we come to the Bible, we find that there are mabe 900 manuscripts witnessing to the Majority Text and ten or 15 to the Critical Text, of which two or three are maybe the oldest ones. I question whether it is right to diregard the 900 in favour of the 15. Moreover, contrary to what is often claimed, the witness of the ante-Nicene Church Fathers to the Byzantine Text is very strong: Justin Martyr, Irenaeus, Clement of Alexandria, Tertullian and Hyppolytus all quote from the MT before ever Sinaiticus and Vaticanus were written. Read Burgon. His scholarship is remarkable and I have never seen a refutation of it.

    Finally, because a manuscript is ascribed a late date, that does not mean that it may not have been faithfully copied. King George I of England is no longer extant, but that does not mean that Elizabeth II is not his direct descendant.

    Steve
     
  4. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Westcott and Hort took the canon of "oldest is best" straight from secular textual criticism. And you've mentioned some good points in regards to that.

    As you've pointed out, Biblical textual criticism is made much more complicated by the many manuscripts and the many quotes in the church fathers, something Burgon spent much time on as you've noted. (Reading his works, I sometimes wonder if that is all he did!)

    Another complication that secular textual criticism doesn't have is all the translations from early centuries that show various text types: the Old Latin, the Peshitta, etc. By taking secular principles as is and applying them uncritically (so to speak) to the mss. of the Bible, W&H missed the boat, methinks.
     
    #44 John of Japan, Apr 7, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Apr 7, 2011
  5. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    I googled "secular textual criticism" and found David Cloud using the term. Has anyone else used that particular phraselogy?
     
  6. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Yeah, I just used it recently on the BB. :smilewinkgrin: Google it in quotes and you'll get 488 results. It simply means the textual criticism of non-Biblical works in various ancient languages such as Homer, Aristotle and the like.

    Here's a good discussion: http://www.skypoint.com/members/waltzmn/NonBiblical.html. In fact, on this page they talk about the textual criticism of Sir Walter Scott, Shakespeare and the like. Not even ancient languages!
     
    #46 John of Japan, Apr 11, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Apr 11, 2011
  7. OldRegular

    OldRegular Well-Known Member

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    Martin

    The assumption that a so-called "older" manuscript has been copied fewer times than a so-called "more recent" manuscript seems to be faulty, if not biased, logic. At least that is what I have believed since the "new birth".
     
  8. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    Gordon Fee warns that analyzing the early church fathers involves the same tools as textual criticism of the scriptural manuscripts themselves because, as works of the fathers were copied, the scribes increasingly adapted the scripture quotations to the received text they were familiar with.

    He says, in a footnote (p. 28) in Modern Textual Criticism and the Revival of the Received Text (Journal of the Evangelical Theological Society, March 1978) that:

    Elsewhere (pp. 28-29) he says:

    http://www.etsjets.org/files/JETS-PDFs/21/21-1/21-1-pp019-033_JETS.pdf
     
  9. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Hello RSR,
    Your point is taken, and I think we should all take note of the Cromwell quotation in your signature.

    However, if you take the time to read the work by Pickering that John of Japan linked http://www.revisedstandardversion.net/text/WNP/index.html you will find that he interacts with Fee's assertions in Chapter 4 (and possibly elsewhere also. I haven't finished reading it yet).

    The matter is much more complicated than either side would like. However, if you consider Luke 4:44-5:1, and Eph 3:14-15 which I quoted on another thread, the C.T. text readings are obviously erroneous, so that I'm not sure how one can hold to the infallibility of the Bible if one supports them. Obviously, lots of fine Christians do so, but I'm not sure how they manage it.

    If you take something like 1John 5:7-8, where the textual support is very weak indeed, at least what it says is true. There are three that bear witness in heaven and the Three are One.

    As an aside, the case against the verses is not quite such a slam dunk as people imagine http://www.trinitarianbiblesociety.org/site/articles/a102.pdf

    Steve
     
  10. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    On Michael Marlowe's website he quoted Maurice Robinson (a Majority Text advocate):"I also want to avoid any connection with the utter mess that Wilber Pickering made out of various scholarly quotes in his 'Identity of the NT Text' book,where he blatantly took passages out of context,misquoted other passages,and misapplied the lot in a poor attempt to discredit the eclectic position."

    Quite the contrary Steve. As I pointed out on March 21,2011 with my Comfort quotes.

    You're going too far there. Merely because you favor the Majority Text decisions in those spots does not mean that those scholars (not me) who disagree on textual grounds are waffling on the issue of the Bible's infallibility.
     
  11. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    "...the Byzantine text has all the earmarks of a recension,of a kind for which there is firm evidence of its existence."
     
  12. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    I looked at his translation of the New Testament. Here is a sample of his style:"...such is the basis for the nasty footnotes in NIV,NASB,LB etc."

    "Nasty footnotes"? And why does he reference the old Living Bible? Who uses that anymore?

    Here's another one regarding John 3:13 :

    The Son of Man,who is in Heaven.

    "About 1% of the Greek manuscripts,of inferior quality,omit 'who is in Heaven (as in NIV,NASB,LB,TEV,etc.)" Pickering goes on to say they altered the text.

    This is Pickering's take on John 3:16:

    "Because God loved the world so much that He gave His only begotten son,so that everyone who believes into Him should not be wasted but should have eternal life."

    Should not be wasted? Because God loved the world so much? The latter sounds like it came from the old Living Bible. Why use the antiquated "only begotten Son" when it means the Unique -- one and only Son? "Believes into Him" is an example of very poor English. Needless to say his translation is found lacking.
     
  13. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    With regard to the nastiness or otherwise of the footnotes, I would have to read them first. Perhaps the LB was current when Dr Pickering wrote this.

    1% is about right. Whether the 1% is of inferior quality is a matter of opinion though I understand that Codex Sinaiiticus is full of mistakes. It is certainly Pickeering's view that the text was deliberately altered very early on. He defends this view in the article I linked.

    Pickering is trying to give an exact word-for-word translation, not one that reads well. Therefore he correctly renders eis as 'into.' The Greek word apollumi does not necessarily mean 'to die' but has the primary meaning of being cast off or becoming worthless. The jury is still out as to whether monogenes means 'only begotten' or 'unique,' 'one-of-a-kind.' What it doesn't mean IMO is 'only' (ESV) or 'one and only' (NIV). See Gal 3:26

    Steve
     
  14. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Perhaps you would kindly post them again, please? I don't recall any of Comfort's quotes addressing those two texts. Perhaps I overlooked them.

    I do not say they are 'waffling.' I only say that the CT rendering of those two texts makes the Bible in error. I don't know how supporters of CT get around that. If you know, please tell me.

    Steve
     
  15. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    I go with Robert Reymond about the fact that it means one-and-only or unique. The NET notes say the word is used in the one-of-a-kind sense in John 1:14,18;3:16 and 18.
     
  16. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    I reposted it on the thread:"Does it really matter which Greek text ..."

    No,it doesn't mean the CT rendering is in error and hence the Bible is in error. It simply means that the RTand Majority Text were in error. But their errors are not fatal.

    Do you think that the Majority Text has no harmonizations,pietistic embellishments,interpolations ect.?
     
  17. jonathan.borland

    jonathan.borland Active Member

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  18. wulaishiwo

    wulaishiwo New Member

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    I feel the most difficult thing to translate theology is the culture. First we must understand every sentence in original version and we must totally need to understand the target language. That's both important for translate. A little mistake may be make the translation unreadable.
     
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