Featured Translations Why Are They Different And Can I Trust Them?"

I do not read poorly, you write English poorly. Hopefully you will follow in the steps of your Biblical hero, King Ahab.

 

I was being charitable by giving Manassah as an example of your life because at great last he finally repented. I could easily have come up with biblical figures who never knew the Lord. However, I have given you the benefit of the doubt and regard you as a believer despite all evidence to the contray in your posts and PMs to me.

Nevertheless,you made another below-the-belt cheap shot and liken me to King Ahab,an anti-God character if there ever was one.

You apparently claim to be a deacon of some church but you demonstrate conduct which violently contradicts the qualifications of your office.

 

Acts 12:4

Yes, William Tyndale and Miles Coverdale had used "Easter" and "Passover" inter-changeably. After Tyndale translated some of the Old Testament and used the English rendering "passover" for the Jewish feast, the rendering "Easter" was properly changed to "passover" in many places. While Tyndale and Coverdale had used the rendering “Easter” several times for the Jewish Passover and Coverdale had even used it in the Old Testament, the later English translators had increasingly changed this rendering to “Passover.“

The 1560 Geneva Bible had properly used "passover", replacing all the uses of "Easter" in pre-1611 English Bibles. The 1560 Geneva Bible properly has "the Passover" at Acts 12:4.

Does that suggest that the supposed justification for its use with the meaning "passover" was gone after 1560 since a distinction between the two terms had been established by the Geneva Bible?

It has not been demonstrated that the KJV translators themselves choose the rendering "Easter" at Acts 12:4.

The majority of the KJV translators may not have been responsible for the rendering “Easter” at this verse. Instead they likely supported the Geneva Bible’s rendering “Passover” at Acts 12:4.

Just as the KJV translators changed the Bishops’ Bible’s two other uses of “Easter” at John 11:55 to “Passover,” they may have also changed this third use at Acts 12:4 or may have followed the Geneva Bible's rendering.

In his 1671 book based on a manuscript by Baptist Henry Jessey, Edward Whiston indicated that a great prelate, the chief supervisor of the KJV, inserted “Easter” back into the text of the KJV at this verse as one of the 14 changes he was said to have made (Life and Death of Mr. Henry Jessey, p. 49). In his 1648 sermon entitled “Truth and Love,“ Thomas Hill also noted that Acts 12:4 “was another place that was altered (as you have heard) to keep up that holy time of Easter, as they would think it” (Six Sermons, p. 25). Was the goal of inserting the rendering “Easter” back into the text at this verse in order to present faithfully the meaning of the Greek word in English or was it intended to give the readers a different meaning?

 

The above is significant.

Good information.

And that great prelate was Archbishop Richard Bancroft --right? If any of the KJV revisers can be considered evil (and there were several that come to mind) he was the worst. I know that Miles Smith,who wrote the famous Preface (which counters so effectively KJVOism) objected to Bancroft's 13,or 14 changes which the latter made as the chief overseer of the entire process.

 

If one would like to participate in a higher level forum then perhaps they might want to consider the forum at http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/

 

Geneva1560 notes this at Matthew 27:15



It was a tradition of the Jews to deliver a prisoner at Easter

 

A marginal note --very marginal. Not an alternate rendering.

 

. . .which nonetheless rebuts this howler from 'Logos1560':

 

how about all of us just admitting that the Kjv translators were simply wrong at that rendering of 'easter?"

 

regardless of how and why easter was placed there, was the wrong word to pick to apply there....