Understanding 1 peter 1:1-2

I would think he would like the NKJV since it uses the same underlying text as the KJV.

But I believe that though there is substantial agreement between the CT and the RT, the 7% or so of mainly additions to God's Word which the KJV and NKJV have, show corruption of that text.

Anyway,this is off-topic. Feel free to start a thread about it in the appropriate forum.

 

Now explain how something can be done "before" the advent of time?

Well, lets see WD.God is eternal......he then creates.....that indicates a time before the creation....when you have a creation, it implies a time before creation

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The Gotcha proof texts...must have gotcha,because you did not respond to them.I think you can see what they are getting at,but you must avoid the obvious meaning of the verses or concede the point.
Come on WD.....you can do better

 

I can do better?! You have just stated you believe in the concept of time before the creation of it! Replying to anything filtered through such nonsense would be equally nonsensical. Not sure if you intended to, but by claiming there is time before the creation of time you have just bound God to something created...and I thought your doctrine gave God ultimate sovereignty!

 

:applause::applause::applause:

 

wd.....In The mind of God there is always time....When he reveals this to moses in Gen1 it was not a new idea....but being scripture is a revelation to man...[in time] God gives account of it.[for our benefit.

i do not care for the philosphical,and jumping on words...now if you could address the scripture passages sometime

 

If I recall, these questions I had posed to you first remain unanswered...yet you want me to address further passages. Maybe you can address it sometime

"Did God literally reach in the womb with a needle and thread to create Jeremiah? Did God literally choose those with faith in Christ to live eternally?"

Also, it's quite hypocritical to state you do not care for the philosophical...yet give just that with "In the mind of God there is always time". Fact is there is no before or after with a timeless God.

 

Wd

No, he chose a multitude of sinners,dead in sin[rom5] and gave them repentance and faith.

I do not know what God has not revealed, but if you notice i responded with ex4

Wd
God does whatever he wants however he wants....he says he forms people in the womb I do not analyze how or why God does it, I just believe what he says. If God uses a metaphor, or a parable, or a simile, an anthropromorhism ...it always represents a literal truth

You move the discussion into the realm of words,and the philosophical, I believe you do so hoping to catch me personally,if I mis-use a word, or am not clear in one of my statements....This reminds me of this;

I think you would be better served to address the verses offered.

I offered Gal 4 here.....you dismissed it .

Even though God is above time, he still Acts in and controls it.

ML Jones
Like I said ....you take it to the philosophical....take it to the scriptural if you can....if you cannot that is ok, I understand.

I think however you have a few other concerns that you need to look to...I think you recently posted something about Jesus ....having a sin nature??or sinful flesh??? I do not remember exactly, but I know it was off the reservation.

 

I know what your party line is...but you said that no, God does not choose believers to live eternally. Does He also choose unbelievers? Are you a hyper calvinist?

That is FIGURATIVE language. Do you not know what that means?! You know exactly how people are formed. There is a man and a woman, and they come together...

You say it represents a literal truth, but then turn around and use the figurative language AS literal truth! You are all over the map on this!

Don't judge my motives. The Bible is given to us in words, is it not? As I have already shown, you use just as much philosophy as anyone, and calvinism is built on philosophy.

Now you are Jesus...and I'm the pharissee? Nice.

Seriously, what is there to address? The Bible is full of poetic and figurative language. Supplying figurative language, and using it literally while stating "now deal with this passage" is foolish as you do not even know what it means and how to take it!

Dismiss what part of Galatians 4?

...and I've never said anything contrary to this.

You cannot even deal with the logical using your philosophical theology in trying to fit the square peg of literal understanding into the round circle of figurative language.

Red herring. Deal with your own illogical concerns...and remove the mote from your own eye first, then deal with that topic in it's own thread.