What About Those Who Have Never Heard the Gospel?

pinoybaptist · Jul 30, 2010

Tom Butler said: ↑

..................
Again, I believe the basis for such condemnation of one who's never heard the gospel is his failure to live up to his own moral code (he's a "law unto himself").
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Well, there is no society, white man's or otherwise, without a moral code, and there is no man, atheist, or otherwise, who does not have his own moral code.
The thing is no man's moral code can ever encompass the entire spectrum of God's moral code, or standards.
So, are you saying that God then takes a balance and weighs the amount of morality the person who has not heard the gospel has, and weighs it against the number of His moral codes that man has not lived up to ?

Eagle · Jul 30, 2010

pinoybaptist said: ↑

Well, there is no society, white man's or otherwise, without a moral code, and there is no man, atheist, or otherwise, who does not have his own moral code.
The thing is no man's moral code can ever encompass the entire spectrum of God's moral code, or standards.
So, are you saying that God then takes a balance and weighs the amount of morality the person who has not heard the gospel has, and weighs it against the number of His moral codes that man has not lived up to ?
Click to expand...

I beg Tom Butler's forgiveness, but he has already answered your question in post #23 of this thread - did you not read it? I have copied it here for you, pinoybaptist.

I have posted this opinion elsewhere in other threads, and again here as well.

First, the creation is evidence of a Creator, and observance of natural law reveals the existence of a Law Giver. Further, God has said that he will write the law on their hearts, so they cannot be ignorant of right and wrong. So they are without excuse.

Romans 2:14 gives us the perspective: "For Gentiles, who have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves."

I take that to mean that they have naturally developed a moral code. I believe that it is that moral code by which they will be judged, and condemned. For they will be unable to live up to their own code, and that will be the basis for their condemnation. They will also confess that the condemnation is just because they will have willfully gone against what they believed to be right.

Paul asked the right question: How can they call on him in whom they have not heard? The question implies the answer: they cannot, and thus cannot be held accountable for their failure to call on the name of Jesus for salvation. Nor can they be held accountable for the failure of someone else to call on His name.

So, we must look for another basis for condemnation. I believe it is as I have noted in this post.
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Tom Butler · Jul 30, 2010

Eagle thanks for coming to my defense, but pinoy has raised a legitimate question, and I'm happy to reply. Remember, pinoybaptist is a Primitive Baptist and sees all this from a different perspective.

pinoybaptist said:

Well, there is no society, white man's or otherwise, without a moral code, and there is no man, atheist, or otherwise, who does not have his own moral code.
The thing is no man's moral code can ever encompass the entire spectrum of God's moral code, or standards.
So, are you saying that God then takes a balance and weighs the amount of morality the person who has not heard the gospel has, and weighs it against the number of His moral codes that man has not lived up to ?
Click to expand...

I do not know the mind of God, except that which he has revealed in his word. James 2:10
For whosoever shall keep the whole law, but yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. The principle as been established. One strike and you're out.

The criterion is not the violation of God's law, but his own.
It is not a question of how many times he violates his own moral code, then. Once is enough.

What About Those Who Have Never Heard the Gospel?

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