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What did Jesus leave behind when He took on human form?

Discussion in '2005 Archive' started by covenant, Apr 10, 2005.

  1. covenant

    covenant New Member

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    Yabba,

    I don't think I was giving the impression that once Adam and Eve sinned, sin would cause God to become infected and disintegrate, or become instantly contaminated with leporasy or something like that. I had said that "God could not, in all of His Holiness commune with sinful man "in the same manner."

    There was an indication that "separation" had begun to take place, but that the "separation" was not seen as "completed" until they were banished from the Garden when God "placed the cherubim, and the the flaming sword which turned every way, to guard the way to the tree of life." (3:24) Only through the sacrifice of Christ "hanging on a tree" are we symbolically entitled to enter the Garden of Eden - the New Jerusalem. We do not actually enter it until the New Heavens and the New Earth are cleansed with fire as in 2 Peter.

    Now in the Garden of Eden, the fact that the separation that had begun to take place is seen in verse 8; "And they heard the sound of the Lord God walking in the garden in the cool of the day,..."

    To get an understanding of what that implies, go back to 1:2-4. Verse 2 says that "darkness was upon the face of the deep." Verses 3&4 says; "And God said, "Let there be light"; and there was light. And God said that the light was good; and God separated the light from the darkness.

    Now, although this is an account of the creation, it is worth noting that God only calls the light which he Names "Day" as being good - He does not call the darkness that he names "Night" as being good.

    But, God goes to Adam and Eve, "in the cool of the day" thus, indicating that it is neither day nor night - but evening time, when it is cool.

    Now, Good Evening! [​IMG]

    [ April 12, 2005, 09:10 PM: Message edited by: covenant ]
     
  2. OldRegular

    OldRegular Well-Known Member

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    In answer to your original question on this thread I would say that the only thing God the Son laid aside in the incarnation was His Glory. The Apostle Paul states in Colossians 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. Before His crucifixion Jesus Christ asked God the Father: And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was [John 17:5], nothing else.

    I disagree with your statement "With the Amill view ....", rather I would say that the millennial reign conflicts with the Scriptural view concerning the appearance of Jesus Christ upon His return. Revelation 19 states that when Jesus Christ returns He will return in the full glory of the Godhead. Scripture also tells us that man cannot look upon the Glory of God and live. Even Moses was not permitted to look upon the full Glory of the Godhead.

    I am not sure what you mean by "veiled" forms. The Old Testament records several preincarnate appearances of God the Son, most notably His appearance to Abraham before the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah [Genesis 18].

    I would say that His appearance to Abraham was an appearance to a sinful man, though one who had been justified by his faith.

    Though Scripture does not record His post resurrection appearances to unbelievers it does not necessairly rule them out. His resurrection body had not received the Glory that He had before the incarnation until His ascension. I agree wholeheartedly with your final statement. It does not make sense that He would appear on earth for 1,000 years to live and commune again with sinful man in His glorified body! It is indeed a contradiction of what Scripture says.
     
  3. covenant

    covenant New Member

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    Act 9:3-6
    (3) As he was traveling, it happened that he was approaching Damascus, and suddenly a light from heaven flashed around him;

    (4) and he fell to the ground and heard a voice saying to him, "Saul, Saul, why are you persecuting Me?"

    Jesus did not appear to Saul in the same manner God did on a one-on-one basis with Adam and Eve. Again, scripture says that God was "walking in the garden" and that they hid themselves from the presence of the Lord God among the trees." Once more, that communal one-on-one existence never happened again with sinful man after the expulsion from the Garden of Eden and scripture does not indicate that it will ever happen again until Revelation 21.

    The "appearance" to Paul was a brief encounter and for a specific purpose - to anoint Paul and commission him to spreading the gospel through the Gentile world. Those "special revelations" were not a common occurrence either in the Old Testament nor in the New Testament.

    So, my point still holds true - that Christ, in his glorified body, will remain there as he said;

    "From now on the Son of Man shall sit at the right hand of the power of God." Luke 22:69

    Once again, nowhere does it say that a glorified Christ will return to a cursed earth to dwell on earth for 1,000 years and commune with unregenerate man that is in rebellion against Him.

    [ April 12, 2005, 10:08 PM: Message edited by: covenant ]
     
  4. Paul33

    Paul33 New Member

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    Covenant and Hank,

    Neither of you has shown one Scripture that disproves that God the Son has freely limited his attubute of omnipresence by his incarnation, death, resurrection and receiving of a glorified body.
     
  5. covenant

    covenant New Member

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    Paul33,

    Perhaps it would be helpful if you told us what scritpture you use to base your presumption that God the Son has limited his attribute of omnipresence because to me, opmipresence is not the issue.
     
  6. covenant

    covenant New Member

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    OldRegular,
    Joh 17:5 And now Father, glorify Me with Yourself with the glory which I had with You before the world was. Christ was "glorified" upon His death.
    OldRegular, Don't you think that Paul would have mentioned it in the following verses if Christ, in His glorified body, did appear to unbelievers as He had done before the cross?

    1Co 15:4 and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures;
    1Co 15:5 and that He was seen by Cephas, then by the Twelve.
    1Co 15:6 Afterward He was seen by over five hundred brothers at once, of whom the greater part remain until this present day, but also some fell asleep.
    1Co 15:7 Afterward He was seen by James, then by all the apostles.
    1Co 15:8 And last of all He was seen by me also, as one born out of time.

    [ April 12, 2005, 10:47 PM: Message edited by: covenant ]
     
  7. Paul33

    Paul33 New Member

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    If Jesus rose from the dead bodily, ascended into heaven, sits at the Father's right hand, and will return bodily to earth, doesn't this seem to teach that God the Son through the incarnation has taken on permanently a bodily form?
     
  8. covenant

    covenant New Member

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    OldRegular,

    Could you clarify what you think we disagree on because I don't see where we do.

    My statement was; "With the A-Mill view, Christ does not, and cannot reside alonside sinful man in His now "glorified state."

    I know you enough by your posts that it surprises me that you would disagree with this. I don't see where a glorified Christ will reside on a cursed earth for 1,000 years with unregenerate man as is the Pre-Mill view. It isn't that Christ can't because He can do anything He wants to do - it's just that to do so would be a contradiction of what scripture says will be the next and only event and also of what He has already done in the past.

    :confused:
     
  9. OldRegular

    OldRegular Well-Known Member

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    Could you clarify what you think we disagree on because I don't see where we do.

    My statement was; "With the A-Mill view, Christ does not, and cannot reside alonside sinful man in His now "glorified state."

    I know you enough by your posts that it surprises me that you would disagree with this. I don't see where a glorified Christ will reside on a cursed earth for 1,000 years with unregenerate man as is the Pre-Mill view. It isn't that Christ can't because He can do anything He wants to do - it's just that to do so would be a contradiction of what scripture says will be the next and only event and also of what He has already done in the past.

    :confused:
    </font>[/QUOTE]I am sorry I confused you. I was simply stating that the amillennial view was the Scriptural view. [​IMG]
     
  10. covenant

    covenant New Member

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    OldRegular,

    [​IMG] WHEW!

    Now I can go to bed! It is late! [​IMG]
     
  11. OldRegular

    OldRegular Well-Known Member

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    Joh 17:5 And now Father, glorify Me with Yourself with the glory which I had with You before the world was. Christ was "glorified" upon His death.
    </font>[/QUOTE]I can't agree that Jesus Christ was glorified until after His ascension, if by glorify you mean He received the Glory that He had with the Father before His incarnation. After that Glory was restored to Him no one, believer or unbeliever, would have been able to look upon His Glory and live.

    1 Timothy 6:13-16
    13. I give thee charge in the sight of God, who quickeneth all things, and before Christ Jesus, who before Pontius Pilate witnessed a good confession;
    14. That thou keep this commandment without spot, unrebukeable, until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ:
    15. Which in his times he shall shew, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords;
    16. Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.


    By the way the above passage which speaks of the appearing or return of Jesus Christ should be sufficient to end all speculation about a millennial reign of Jesus Christ on this earth with mortals.
     
  12. covenant

    covenant New Member

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    OldRegular,

    Originally posted by OldRegular;

    " His resurrection body had not received the Glory that He had before the incarnation until His ascension.
    --------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    Originally posted by Covenant;
    Joh 17:5 And now Father, glorify Me with Yourself with the glory which I had with You before the world was. Christ was "glorified" upon His death.

    --------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    Originally posted by OldRegular;
    "I can't agree that Jesus Christ was glorified until after His ascension, if by glorify you mean He received the Glory that He had with the Father before His incarnation. After that Glory was restored to Him no one, believer or unbeliever, would have been able to look upon His Glory and live."

    -------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    OldRegular,

    I'm going to concede to you on this one and say that I think that we are both right. His work on earth was multi-tasked. He revealed the mind of God when the Logos became flesh, suffered for man, crucified and then died, arose from the dead, and ascended to the Father. John 17 speaks of that entire time on earth and that the conclusion of his work that he prays to be glorified in includes what is to come in the next few days.

    I also agree completely with your use of 1 Timothy 6 but with one more added to it.

    In John 17:9 Jesus, in praying to the Father, says this; "I am praying for [my disciples]; I am not praying for the world but for those whom thou has given me, for they are thine;"

    He goes on in verse 20 to pray for the church that would grow and expand from the Jewish remnant that believed He was the Messiah of the OT; "I do not pray for these only, but also for those who believe in me through their word, that they may all be one;..."

    Chirst has turned over the responsibility to the church of proclaiming the gospel to the unsaved. To bring a glorified Christ back down to earth to once again commune with unregenerate man is to proclaim that he was not successful in his work on earth.

    [ April 13, 2005, 09:11 AM: Message edited by: covenant ]
     
  13. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Paul33 says...
    Please put this into other words because I'm not sure what challange you are presenting here.

    If you are saying that Jesus Christ as the Logos no longer has the attribute of omnipresence, then I object. Whatever He laid aside in the Incarnation has been restored.

    I base that belief on at least the following Scripture which I have already given:

    Revelation 1:8 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty

    Revelation 1:11 Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia; unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and unto Pergamos, and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia, and unto Laodicea.

    Revelation 21:6 And he said unto me, It is done. I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end. I will give unto him that is athirst of the fountain of the water of life freely.

    Revelation 22:13 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last.

    These passages being allusions to:

    Isaiah 44:6 Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.

    What specific uses of His attributes and perogatives of deity that He had on earth is not 100 percent clear from the Scripture and I am content to leave it there because God did not reveal all the specifics of the Kenosis for a reason.

    My opinion: He had total access to all the attributes of deity but used them only through the permission of the Father, otherwise He willingly limited Himself to the same divine perogatives (prayer, etc) that you and I have available to us.


    HankD
     
  14. Paul33

    Paul33 New Member

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    Sorry Hank,

    My post was confusing.

    I believe that Jesus was fully God and fully man. As God, he possessed all of the attributes that he had before the incarnation. As man, he possessed a human nature, yet without sin.

    Jesus as God/Man willingly limited the "use" of his attribute of omnipresence by virtue of taking on human flesh. He could still be omnipresent if he chose, but he chose to take on the form of a servant. By adding humanity to his diety, he freely limited himself in expressing some of his attributes as God, but he didn't give up any part of what it means to be God.

    Now, I also believe that Jesus forever took on the form of humanity. In his human nature, he sits at the Father's right hand. In his divine nature, he can be with us always, or be wherever two or three are gathered. I don't know how that works, but that appears to be what the Bible teaches.
     
  15. Paul33

    Paul33 New Member

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    Erickson believes that Jesus rose from the dead bodily and then received a "spiritual" body.

    Grudem believes that Jesus rose from the dead bodily and will remain for eternity in this physical, yet glorified body.
     
  16. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    OK Paul, appears that we have a good measure of agreement.

    HankD
     
  17. OldRegular

    OldRegular Well-Known Member

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    Doesn't what you believe conflict with the declaration of the Apostle Paul in Colossians 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
     
  18. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    I can't speak for Paul33 but could you please explain what you perceive to be the contradiction?

    HankD
     
  19. covenant

    covenant New Member

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    HankD,

    I can't speak for OldRegular, but I disagree with Paul33 in this statement:
    It appears from scripture that Christ was "omnipresent" while here on earth, not that "he could choose to be" as this verse does seem to indicate otherwise;
    Matthew Henry has this to say about "...who is in Heaven."

    "That he is in heaven. Now at this time, when he is talking with Nicodemus on earth, yet, as God, he is in heaven. The Son of man, as such, was not in heaven till his ascension; but he that was the Son of man was now, by his divine nature, every where present, and particularly in heaven. Thus the Lord of glory, as such, could not be crucified, nor could God, as such, shed his blood; yet that person who was the Lord of glory was crucified (1Co_2:8), and God purchased the church with his own blood, Act_20:28. So close is the union of the two natures in one person that there is a communication of properties."

    The fact that He may have been "on earth" and "in heaven" at the same time does indicate his "ability" to do the same at any given point in time - even for the 1,000 year reign as is the Pre-Mill view. However, the Pre-Mill view of an earthly reign amongst sinful man in the very same form and nature is a contradiction of scripture and the intent and purpose of the first and last earthly manifestation of God in the flesh.
     
  20. yabba

    yabba New Member

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    Question for OldRegular and covenant,
    I carry a gun. If I choose not to use the gun do I still have the power of the gun?

    Also, if in order to have a certain power you have to use the power does that not make you controlled by the power?
     
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