Featured What is Marriage?

I find the following interesting relative to marriage.

Matt 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

Jer 3:8 And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce;

I assume her adultery was fornication.--?--

Luke 16:15-18 And he said unto them, Ye are they which justify yourselves before men; but God knoweth your hearts: for that which is highly esteemed among men is abomination in the sight of God. The law and the prophets [were] until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it. And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than one tittle of the law to fail. Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from [her] husband committeth adultery.

Will there be reconciliation between God and the house of Israel?

Did verse 18 and my question have anything to do with the story/parable which followed the rich man and Lazarus, Verses 19-31

 

And when the President takes his Oath of Office:laugh:

 

God's written law never authorized this......apparently, Moses made the "command decision" so-to-speak: only because of the hardness of their hearts. We cannot deduce God's approval of the practice from silence. Remember Jesus-as God- said that "From the beginning...God made them male and female." et. al. God did not offer his tacit approval of this practice of divorce. There is a clear distinction in the New Testament passages between what God allowed and what Moses allowed.

 

Yesterday, according to North Carolina voters, marriage is defined as a union between a man and a woman. An amendment to the state constitution was on the primary ballot, which would reinforce existing laws that ban gay marriage.

Election Results:
61% for the amendment
39% opposed to the amendment

 

Think that we agree on this point, as it was NOT what God had originally intended for marriage, but He permitted marriage to multiple wines/divorcing etc, as was under the time pre messiah, but since time of yeshua coming, he demands and ONLY blesses the original intended state of marriage!

 

Fascinating question!!:thumbs:

I think my advice would be two-fold:

1.) keep the bald look...it works for you

2.) If you he has had relations with these wives...keep them and take no others... if you have not, they should go free.

Generally, I do not think that These are "marriages" exemplified by God-honoring vows...so, in some since...it is little more than fornication....but at the point of a man already in this otherwise Godless situation....once he is regenerated...he has (I would say) a responsibility to continue caring for and providing for his "wives" He might then...even make a form of public vow (as it were) before God and his subjects...his society which re-inforces Biblical mandates as much as is possible...such as Biblically-based vows to honor-provide for-protect-love-even teach, and guide as the priest of his household. His major purpose at this point should be to seek the conversion of the "wives" he does have. If one refuses, and wants to leave; then perhaps he should let her go as well. But if she "is pleased to dwell with him" still...he is stuck, he must evangelize and seek to lead them to salvation. The Political ramifications are not at issue....obedience is.
These are my best guesses...Good questions :thumbs:

 

Would paul telling us to stay as were were/are in state of free/slave etc apply here at all?

 

Quote:
Originally Posted by HeirofSalvation View Post
God's written law never authorized this......apparently, Moses made the "command decision" so-to-speak: only because of the hardness of their hearts. We cannot deduce God's approval of the practice from silence. Remember Jesus-as God- said that "From the beginning...God made them male and female." et. al. God did not offer his tacit approval of this practice of divorce. There is a clear distinction in the New Testament passages between what God allowed and what Moses allowed.


Jer 3:8 And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce;

I assume her adultery was fornication.--?--

Will there be reconciliation between God and the house of Israel?

 

You re-posted this question: I think it has not been answered because no one knows what you are trying to convey...This sounds more like a rhetorical question, than one seeking an answer, if that is the case...your point escapes me...If you are asking a question desiring a response, I think you should state it more clearly...I do not think your passages in Jeremiah....nor say, the entire book of Hosea are particularly applicable to the topic at hand.

 

I showed where in Jer. God gave the house of Israel a bill of divorce and then asked the question if there would be reconciliation between God and the house of Israel.

We read a lot about reconciliation in the NT. Could that reconciliation of Christ to the church be the reconciliation between God and the house of Israel?

Is The book of Hosea a prophesy of this reconciliation?

That is all I am asking. Am just trying to discuss on a forum something I see concerning marriage that may or may not be related.

Concerning Hosea. 1:6 says God would no longer have mercy on the house of Israel. V9 says God will not be their God and they won't be his people. Jer 3 says he gave her a bill of divorce.
V10 seems to imply God will take her back again. Through out the whole book you find her scattered among the Gentiles to the point they are Gentiles. Acts 15:14 says God is taking out of the Gentiles a people for his name. Romans 9:24-26 appears to imply the people in v6 and 9 of 1 Hosea as Gentiles are now being called by God.

Is that reconciliation or not? Does not the word reconcile not imply to have had an intimate relationship in the past?

That is all I am asking.

 

One more point.

Take the parable of the prodigal son. Is this reconciliation what the parable is about and did that reconciliation upset those of the house of Judah among whom Jesus was walking and preaching and is the story/parable about who will e in the kingdom of God and that some of Judah, the rich man, could be cast out when some from the Gentiles, Lazarus, would be in the kingdom of God?

Thus

Luke 16:15-18 And he said unto them, Ye are they which justify yourselves before men; but God knoweth your hearts: for that which is highly esteemed among men is abomination in the sight of God. The law and the prophets [were] until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it. And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than one tittle of the law to fail. Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from [her] husband committeth adultery.

Begins the story/parable

It is a discussion forum, is it not?

I don't have to be right or wrong, just discussing something I see as a possibility.