1. Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

What's the distinction between a good book and scripture?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Skandelon, Mar 18, 2010.

  1. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

    Joined:
    Jan 19, 2003
    Messages:
    9,638
    Likes Received:
    1
    RAdam,

    I looked back to our last interaction and I think people can read for themselves to see which one of us is using tactics, attacks and senseless arguments. Here is a link to our last interaction where I remain very cordial and make very sound and reasonable points while you over react, attack and bring unfounded accusations. Very revealing...

    http://baptistboard.com/showthread.php?t=63538&page=11

    (Post #108 is where I respond to RAdam's last post)
     
  2. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

    Joined:
    Oct 13, 2005
    Messages:
    12,977
    Likes Received:
    1,672
    Faith:
    Baptist
    The difference between a good book and scripture is that one is the revelation of God of Himself and His plans and the other is not.

    A "good book" may contain elements of the truths found in scripture, but it is not scripture.

    The most important result of this distinction is that Scripture, as the revelation of God, is the final measure and authority for truth.

    Everything else that is written, both good and bad, must be examined against the measuring rod (canon) of scripture.

    Concerning the final revelation of God in the person of Jesus Christ:

    Hebrews 1:1-2 "God, after He spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, (2) in these last days has spoken to us in His Son.... (3)...He is the radiance of His glory and the exact representation of His nature..." (emphasis mine: not yelling)

    John 1:18 "No man has seen God at any time; the only begotten God, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him...." (emphasis mine: not yelling)

    Both of these passages speak of the revelation of God in the person of Jesus Christ. Both are a "completed action in the past".

    If a person believes there is a need for further revelation from God, then a person must believe that Jesus didn't do a good enough job of speaking for the Father, or explaining the Father to us.

    peace to you:praying:
     
  3. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

    Joined:
    Jan 19, 2003
    Messages:
    9,638
    Likes Received:
    1
    canadyjd,

    How would you explain the difference in how God brought about the writing of scripture and how He brought about the writing of other good, true Christian books? As I asked in the OP, Weren't both brought about by God's sovereign decree?

    Don't you believe both are truth?

    Don't you believe God was "in control" over the author while writing the words in both cases?

    It just appears to me that the only real distinction in the two is how you title them, whereas I believe the work of God in sovereignly and effectually bringing about the writing of scripture was completely unique. In your system, every good act is under God's sovereign control so there seems to be less distinction in how God might bring about scripture and other truthful works. I'm attempting to find an explanation on how God works to bring about one that makes it different than the other. Understand?
     
  4. quantumfaith

    quantumfaith Active Member

    Joined:
    Jan 26, 2010
    Messages:
    6,890
    Likes Received:
    1
    But in regard to the Canon itself, which they so superciliously intrude upon us, ancient writers are not agreed. Let the mediators, then, enjoy their own as they please, provided we are at liberty to repudiate those which all men of sense, at least when informed on the subject, will perceive to be not of divine original (John Calvin)

    "John Calvin on the True Method of Giving Peace to Christendom and Reforming the Church," in Tracts and Treatises in Defense in Defense of the Reformed Faith, by John Calvin; trans. Henry Beveridge. Vol. 3. Grand Rapids, Mich: Eerdmans, 1958 (reprinted from Calvin Trans. Soc., Edinburgh, 1851), p. 267
     
  5. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

    Joined:
    Jan 19, 2003
    Messages:
    9,638
    Likes Received:
    1
    1. Do you agree with Calvin on this point?

    2. How do you think that answers the question I posed?
     
  6. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

    Joined:
    Oct 13, 2005
    Messages:
    12,977
    Likes Received:
    1,672
    Faith:
    Baptist
    I believe others have attempted to explain the difference between God's decree and God allowing things to come to pass (both good and evil).
    Both are not revelation. To the extent that a "good" book reflects the truth found in God's revelation (scripture) then it is truth... but it is not revelation.
    No.
    Perhaps you can explain how God "sovereignly and effectually" brought about the writing of scripture without violating man's free-will.... then apply your thinking to God bringing someone to salvation without violating free-will... and you'll be a little closer to accurately understanding reformed theology.
    Several people have explained the distinction. You keep attempting to define "my system" in a way that is contrary to the way I define "my system". Sorry, I would will stick to my definitions whether you agree or not.

    BTW, Romans 8:28 says "And we know that God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God, to those who are called according to His purpose...."

    How does that verse work out in your "system"?
    It's the difference between "revelation" and "illumination". Though Holy Spirit is involved in both, they are not the same. Do you understand the difference between revelation and illumination?

    With "revelation", Holy Spirit is revealing God and His plan. Who He is and what He has done. The final revelation has been given with the person of Jesus Christ and the events surrounding His death, burial and resurrection, the founding of the church. That revelation was recorded as scripture by men so inspired by Holy Spirit they wrote exactly what God wanted us to have, without violating their own personal styles, purposes, or intellect.

    With "illumination", Holy Spirit is enlightning our understanding of the "revelation" already given.

    So, when we read scripture, Holy Spirit isn't giving us new revelation, He is enlightening our understanding of the revelation already given.

    When someone writes a "good book" (i.e. Pilgrim's Progress), they are responding to the illumination of Holy Spirit of the revelation already given. They then write a book that helps others to understand what they have learned, which may or may not be accurate.

    So, the work of Holy Spirit is not the same in revelation and illumination.

    Do you now understand the difference between revelation and illumination? The work of Holy Spirit is not the same with each one.

    peace to you.:praying:
     
  7. quantumfaith

    quantumfaith Active Member

    Joined:
    Jan 26, 2010
    Messages:
    6,890
    Likes Received:
    1
    Quite the contrary. Not a fan of Calvin or his overall theological ideas. I do respect his scholarship, but most definitely do not read from the scriptures the same God he gleans.
     
  8. quantumfaith

    quantumfaith Active Member

    Joined:
    Jan 26, 2010
    Messages:
    6,890
    Likes Received:
    1
    Calvin seems to have argued that acceptance of any particular book of scripture depends on an individual's knowledge and conscience. In context, Calvin specifically argued against acceptance of the O.T. Apocrypha, declared to be authoritative by the R. C. Church; logically, however. the "liberty to repudiate" given to "all men of sense" would apply also to all books of the Old Testament and New Testament.

    There are plenty of honest questions with regard to the cannonicity of scriptures and we as believers should not be afraid, either intellectually or spiritually to seek answers. After all, our claim as Christians is the possession of real, absolute and objective truth. We should always seek such.
     
  9. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

    Joined:
    Jan 19, 2003
    Messages:
    9,638
    Likes Received:
    1
    Actually, Archangel said there was a difference between "decree" and "ordain" and he defined it as you have here: "allowing things to come to pass." But when I asked for clarity about this Jarthur replied and said that, "Holy Spirit moves on believers. Bynyan was moved to write PP."

    I had asked, "...wouldn't it be fair to say that all good things come from God? Didn't God bring the story of Pilgrim's Progress to Bunyan, or do you think he came up with it himself? See, I'm trying to get to the distinction between what Paul wrote in the NT and what Bunyan wrote. Assuming both are true and good then aren't both OF GOD? How can one be more "of God" than something else, or more "true" than something else?"

    .
    You all keep using terms with any definition. To me truth is revelation. How does a truth not reveal and how is a revelation of God not true? In other words, how are they different?

    Do you believe that God merely allowed Bunyan to write the Pilgrims Progress, or do you believe like JArthur that the Holy Spirit moved on him to write it?


    Well, then you and I may not have a disagreement on this point. Some Calvinists seem to argue that God decrees all things in such a way that they could not have been otherwise. In other words, they would teach that Bunyan could not have not written PP because God casually determined that he would.

    I don't believe that he did. I believe His will trumped man's will in this regard thus making the writing of scripture divine and authoritative. Like the story of Jonah. God effectually sent Jonah to Nineveh. God's will trumped Jonah's will in regard to getting His Word to the people. That is what made that event sacred and special. If God effectually caused every person to do everything they end up doing (as some argue) then what is the uniqueness of such accounts? The uniqueness of God's interventions in cases like the inspiration of scripture is the very thing that gives those events authority and a divine quality. It separates them as being "of God" and not "of Man."

    Hopefully my explanation will help you understand non-reformed theology a little better.


    As I pointed out, I don't see where you defined certain terms in a way that points out a clear distinction.

    God works to bring about his ultimate purpose and plan in the world despite the sin and evil acts of man. He does not "casually determine" or "decree" all acts (including sinful ones) as many Calvinistic scholars argue.

    Good explanation. Thanks.

    Now, to clarify, I'm assuming that the "good book" IS true, though I understand that it may not be because it's not scripture. But if you suppose for the sake of the argument that the Pilgrim's Progress is true then how is it not revelatory? It gives us insight, through analogy, that the scripture itself does not give. For example, the many books written on the doctrine of the trinity, if we suppose one is true, then is it not revelatory in giving someone understand of that doctrine?

    It seems to me that illumination is more "revelatory" than revelation by your explanation because it's only through illumination that one can have understanding.

    Anyway, you and I may not really have much of a point of contention because you don't seem to argue, as do some, that God does "causally determine" all things that come to pass in such a way that they could not be otherwise. That may be more of a philosophical debate with which you have not engaged.
     
  10. RAdam

    RAdam New Member

    Joined:
    Apr 10, 2009
    Messages:
    2,100
    Likes Received:
    0
    Good grief, that is your example. That was a thread where you erected a giant straw man, one which accused believers in the doctrine of grace with believing things we just don't believe and that are quite frankly insulting, and when I plainly exposed your agenda you fired back that you were "cordial and civil" and that I attacked you. Nonsense. Cordial and civil my foot, you knowingly misrepresented the views of doctrine of grace believers in order to win an argument against us. Is that civil? You lied about what we believe. Yeah, I'm not simply going to sit back and allow that to go without exposing it. I wasn't rude about it, but I was plain about it. I guess you consider that rude. I reckon then that you think Jesus and Paul were rude too, they did similar things. Jesus called people hypocrites and a generation of vipers. Paul said about people who were knowingly spreading lies about what he believed that their damnation was just. I haven't said anything like that about you, just simply that you regularly misrepresent the views of those that you disagree with for the purpose of winning an argument. That is unethical. If that makes me rude to say it, I guess I'm rude.
     
  11. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

    Joined:
    Jan 19, 2003
    Messages:
    9,638
    Likes Received:
    1
    I did not accuse "Calvinists" with believing anything. I asked what you believed and then gave the options that appeared to be the only viable ones to choose from. Here is exactly what I asked:

    Why do some believers in Christ affirm Calvinistic doctrine while other do not? In my estimation there can only be three possible answers assuming that the Calvinistic dogma is true:

    1. Calvinists are just smarter, wiser, more educated, or something which may give them cause to boast.
    2. God elected some of the elect to be Calvinistic while passing by all the rest of us "lessor" children of God.
    3. God does irresistibly draw all true believers and those who reject Calvinism are not real Christians.


    If you notice these are basically the same choices that another Calvinist had given me when he posed the question as to why some lost people come to faith and others do not. My point was simply to show that we all have to deal with the "free choices" of people and reconcile God's role in those choices. If you go back to that thread you will notice that you never did answer the question or address my arguments.

    If Calvinism is true, then why did you accept it while other believers did not? Either it is something of yourself (option 1), all of God (option 2), or all true believers are Calvinistic (option 3). Is there another option really?


    . How is asking you what you believe lying and uncivil? I asked a question and when you answered I sought out clarity by explaining how I interpreted what you said. I never used insults, I never called you a liar (as you are me) and I never got upset or uncivil with you...as you have with me. If you can't handle a civil disagreement about these doctrines then this may not be the best place for you to visit. I have only treated you with respect an in a cordial manner. Just because we disagree about a doctrine doesn't mean we can't discuss our disagreement in a Christlike manner.

    So now you are comparing yourself with Paul and Jesus and me with the heretics of his day? And you call me a liar, insulting, senseless, without reason, attacking, and engaging in tactics? Interesting.

    You haven't even tried to engage with me in a rational or civil discussion. You don't know me. You have no idea what I believe or what I've argued because you have done nothing but attack me since our first encounter. Why not just deal with the arguments or move on? Answer the questions or don't, but why the personal attacks? That is not needed here. The questions I'm raising have been debated by scholars for centuries and I would like to think those who are brothers in Christ do so with love and respect. If you can't do that then I see no need to continue our discourse. Blessings.
     
    #31 Skandelon, Mar 26, 2010
    Last edited by a moderator: Mar 26, 2010
  12. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

    Joined:
    Oct 13, 2005
    Messages:
    12,977
    Likes Received:
    1,672
    Faith:
    Baptist
    It doesn't give us new revelation. It helps explain something God has already revealed in His Word, to the extent that it is accurate.
    Then you still do not understand the difference between illumination and revelation. Revelation has already been given, whether you or I understand it does not matter. Our perceptions of truth do not change the truth that exists, objectively, in scripture.

    To the extent we understand scripture as God intends for us to understand His Word, it is because Holy Spirit illuminates our minds and allows us to understand.

    For example, We both believe God's Word is truth.

    I accept the doctrines of Grace. I believe they are found in scripture and clearly taught.

    You reject the doctrines of Grace. You do not believe scripture supports such doctrine.

    You might be right, and I am wrong...Or... I could be right and you could be wrong... Or we might both be wrong...but we can't both be right.

    Our perceptions of what is true is independent of the truth that exists in scripture.

    peace to you:praying:
     
  13. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

    Joined:
    Jan 19, 2003
    Messages:
    9,638
    Likes Received:
    1
    I brought this post back up to see if Archangel has a response to my last post to him on page two...
     
  14. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

    Joined:
    Feb 21, 2003
    Messages:
    3,339
    Likes Received:
    233
    Faith:
    Baptist
    You last post was as absurd then as it is now. I chose not to respond originally because to do so would have dignified the post--something I choose, still, not to do.

    The Archangel
     
  15. OldRegular

    OldRegular Well-Known Member

    Joined:
    Nov 21, 2004
    Messages:
    22,678
    Likes Received:
    64
    [snipped: inflammatory in intent and not contributing to the topic of thread]
     
    #35 OldRegular, Dec 16, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Dec 16, 2011
  16. preacher4truth

    preacher4truth Active Member

    Joined:
    Nov 18, 2010
    Messages:
    8,121
    Likes Received:
    17
    Yep. I've just read this OP and I must in all honesty concur with your assessment. :thumbsup:
     
  17. marke

    marke New Member

    Joined:
    Dec 16, 2011
    Messages:
    261
    Likes Received:
    0
    To a man dying of thirst, the comparison is like the distinction between a glass of water and a picture of water. (note carefully the deliberate spelling.) Any comparison of God's word to some other book is like comparing a statue of Dagon to the Image of God which John saw in Rev. 1.
     
  18. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

    Joined:
    Jan 19, 2003
    Messages:
    9,638
    Likes Received:
    1
    This is a topic being discussed and debated by scholars in respected journals on the professional level, so I know better than to accept this dismissal as being valid. Instead it only reveals you lack of objectivity or understanding of my argument. May I respectfully request you revisit the topic with a more open heart and mind to the issues at hand?
     
  19. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

    Joined:
    Jan 19, 2003
    Messages:
    9,638
    Likes Received:
    1
    To review. I'm asking about God's direct sovereign intervention in bringing about the writing of scriptures as it relates to his sovereign control over other truths written by his children. That is not an absurd topic and surely doesn't deserve the distain and disgust with which it has been met.

    Maybe you simply misunderstood the argument?
     
  20. preacher4truth

    preacher4truth Active Member

    Joined:
    Nov 18, 2010
    Messages:
    8,121
    Likes Received:
    17
    Several have shared otherwise. No one has shown disdain, but simply have told you they think it silly.

    Heavens sakes, you called a post of mine, in your first response "blatantly false" and that's OK right, but call yours silly and it goes down this road and is referred to, by the word "silly" as disdain and inflammatory? Wow!

    Your OP overlooks Biblical inspiration. You don't understand the difference between the inspiration of the Scriptures and a Christian book? Seriously?

    Let's put it in persepective for you: If Jobs friends wrote a book about God, He'd allow it, and the theology would be non-cal, yet he'd let them write it, though deficient in its theology and falls well short of portraying Sovereignty in truth. If on the other hand Job wrote one, it would be Calvinistic, and would be rejected by non-cals, and God would allow him to write it as well, and Sovereignty would be presented truthfully.

    By the way it's disdain, not distain.
     
Loading...