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What's the faith in "faith only"?

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by bmerr, Aug 9, 2005.

  1. mman

    mman New Member

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    1 Corinthians 1:17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.

    Would you say that Paul was disobedient to the Great Commission??
    </font>[/QUOTE]Did Paul baptize? Yes, but not many. Were the Corinthians baptized? Yes (Acts 18:8)

    Some people were claiming to be followers of Paul. Paul list two conditions that would make them followers or belonging to Paul. 1) Paul would have to be crucified for them. 2) They would have to be baptized in his name or by his authority.

    Paul was not crucified for them but Jesus was. They were not baptized in Paul's name, but in the name of Jesus. Therefore, they belonged to Jesus not Paul.

    That is why Paul was glad that he had not baptized more of them, because the understood the importance of baptism.

    Can you not see the emphasis Paul is placing on baptism?

    The Corithians had been baptized. The gospel had been preached to them and they had been baptized. Not a very good argument for baptism not being part of the gospel.

    Others could do the baptizing as well as Paul, but not necessarily the preaching. Paul's commission was to preach.

    But notice something very important about Paul’s words that actually demonstrate the necessity of baptism:

    To re-state, according to verse 13, in order to be called after Christ, at least two things must happen:



    1.) Christ must die for that person (which He did)

    2.) That person must be baptized into the name of Christ!

    If one has not been baptized into Christ, how can they rightfully call themselves a Christian or one who belongs or is a follower of Christ, according to this Chapter?

    Even though Paul may have only baptized a few of the Corinthians himself, personally, they ALL were baptized!

    You see, I Cor 1 is a strong argument for the necessity of baptism, not an argument against it.
     
  2. bmerr

    bmerr New Member

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    Here, you show that you are still a works-in-process theologian.

    Why is it that I can articulate your view - but you can't mine?

    YOU HOLD that one receives initial justification by faith. The believer receives the indwelling Spirit and infused grace to conform unto the image of Jesus Christ. When the believer achieves a certain (undefined) level of perfection, God will reward that soul with final justification. Salvation depends on both justification and a process of sanctification.</font>[/QUOTE]Lloyd,

    bmerr here. There you go again, misrepresenting folks. While I can appreciate your education, I resent your attempt at mind reading! You don't know as much as you think you know, Lloyd!

    The Bible states outright that man is justified by works, and not by faith only (James 2:24).

    Paul states repeatedly that man is not justified by the "works of the law" (Rom 3:20; Gal 2:16; etc).

    In Titus 3:5, he says that we are not saved by works of righteousness that we have done, which is in line with Is 64:6, "...all our righteousnessess are as filthy rags..."

    Peter (another inspired writer) states that he that feareth God, and worketh righteousness is accepted of Him (Acts 10:35).

    I didn't write this stuff, I'm just reading it.

    We can deduce that the righteousness that man must work (which Peter and James refer to) is not good things that man comes up with, which would be our rightesousness (Is 64:6, Tit 3:5), and it's not keeping the Mosaic law (Rom 3:20; Gal 2:16), so what is it?

    Psalms 119:172 (not 119:162, as in my earlier typo) tells us that all of God's commandments are righteousness.

    It is a fact that there were commandments from God that man was to obey before the Law was given on Mt. Sinai. Adam and Eve were told to refrain from eating from the forbidden tree. Abel offered a more excellent sacrifice because he did it in accordance with God's word (Heb 11:4). Noah built the ark by faith, or in accordance with God's command. Murder was a sin LONG before "Thou shalt not kill" sounded from the firey mountain (Ex 20:13).

    Men such as Noah and Abraham were justified, or declared righteous, by God because they obeyed the commandments of God. Their faith was made perfect by their works.

    What if they had believed that God had spoken, and even believed what He had said, but did not obey? What good would their faith be? How would it be known?

    No, you hold, if I understand you correctly, that one is justified by "faith only", which I do not find written in the Bible, and therefore, reject as false doctrine.

    you see this as the process of sanctification that leads to final justification.</font>[/QUOTE]No, I simply see it as what is written in the Scriptures. I just don't try to argue it away.

    Thus, the starting of this thread. What kind of faith do you say it is that saves a man? Is it a non-working faith, which the Bible says is dead, or is it a faith accompanied by appropriate works (not works of the law, and not meritorious works, but obedience), which the Bible says justifies man?

    First off, the Bible says that's not true (Acts 10:35). Secondly, every one of these verses speaks of the works of the law, which we already agree does not justify.

    Again, what kind of faith in Christ?

    He that feareth [God] is already justified. The "worketh righteousness" is sanctification.</font>[/QUOTE]The text does not say that, though. You seem to be twisting the text to make it say what you want it to.

    Lloyd, I think you may be the one in error for trying to separate them. The Bible seems to keep them together.

    Our obedience is in keeping with the pattern, or example left for us by Christ. How can one expect to be saved by Christ, if his faith is not obedient as Christ's faith was? He is the author of eternal salvation to all that obey Him (Heb 5:8, 9).

    Belief is to obedience as unbelief is to disobedience. Look at 1 Pet 2:7:

    Unto you therefore which believe he is precious: but unto them which be disobedient, the stone which the builders disallowed, the same is become the head of the corner.

    Can you see how "believe" and "disobedient" are presented as opposites? To believe is to obey. That's so simple, even I can figure it out.

    I've heard of some who have been "educated beyond their common sense". I hope you are not of this number.

    In Christ,

    bmerr
     
  3. Doubting Thomas

    Doubting Thomas Active Member

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    Bmerr,

    Good post.

    DT
     
  4. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    But not by the hand of Paul. Paul's commission was clearly not to baptize. It was to preach the gospel, of which baptism is not part of, and clearly has nothing to do with salvation. Paul makes that clear. Christ sent him to preach the gospel that saves, not to baptize. Baptism doesn't save, has no part in salvation.

    Only in your imagination. Christ sent Paul not to baptize. Why? He sent him to preach the gospel. This did not just apply to the Corinthians, but everywhere he went. This was the commission that Christ gave him throughout his entire life. Why? Because baptism is not and never was part of salvation. Christ sent him to preach the gospel of which baptism is not a part of. If you deny this you deny the Word of God. The Scriptures remain clear and plain; how can you deny them?

    1 Corinthians 1:17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.
    DHK
     
  5. Doubting Thomas

    Doubting Thomas Active Member

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    Paul's mission was indeed to preach the gospel not to necessarily baptize folks himself. However, it doesn't logically follow from his statement that baptism is therefore not part of the salvation process or part of the gospel message itself. (In fact, it was clear in the NT that the gospel message included the command to be baptized for the remission of sins.) All his statement meant was that he was busy preaching--others could do the actual baptizing.
     
  6. mman

    mman New Member

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    But not by the hand of Paul. Paul's commission was clearly not to baptize. It was to preach the gospel, of which baptism is not part of, and clearly has nothing to do with salvation. Paul makes that clear. Christ sent him to preach the gospel that saves, not to baptize. Baptism doesn't save, has no part in salvation.

    Only in your imagination. Christ sent Paul not to baptize. Why? He sent him to preach the gospel. This did not just apply to the Corinthians, but everywhere he went. This was the commission that Christ gave him throughout his entire life. Why? Because baptism is not and never was part of salvation. Christ sent him to preach the gospel of which baptism is not a part of. If you deny this you deny the Word of God. The Scriptures remain clear and plain; how can you deny them?

    1 Corinthians 1:17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.
    DHK
    </font>[/QUOTE]But Paul did baptize! Was that contrary to the message of the gospel? Why were the Corinthians baptized? They had heard the gospel that Paul preached and were baptized. Certainly you understand that Paul was an inspired apostle and only he could preach like he did, yet others could baptize those that responded to the gospel.

    Re-read it for what it says.

    To re-state, according to verse 13, in order to belong to Christ, at least two things must happen:

    1.) Christ must die for that person (which He did)

    2.) That person must be baptized into the name of Christ!

    If one has not been baptized into Christ, how can they rightfully call themselves a Christian or one who belongs to or is a follower of Christ, according to this Chapter?

    Even though Paul may have only baptized a few of the Corinthians himself, personally, they ALL were baptized!

    I Cor 1:13 ...Was Paul crucified for you? Or were you baptized in the name of Paul? 14I thank God that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius, 15so that no one may say that you were baptized in my name. 16(I did baptize also the household of Stephanas. Beyond that, I do not know whether I baptized anyone else.) 17For Christ did not send me to baptize but to preach the gospel, and not with words of eloquent wisdom, lest the cross of Christ be emptied of its power.

    Why was Paul glad that he had not baptized more? Because he didn't want any of them to say that they were baptized in the name of Paul or that they belonged to Paul. This clearly shows the importance of baptism. If baptism were unimportant, what would it have mattered who baptized them? They would have placed no significance on their baptism. Yet, they did understand the importance of baptism. Again, what would it take to belong to Christ? Christ would have to be crucified for you and you would have to be baptized in His name. Simple.
     
  7. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    Mman,
    You are really stretching the truth, and grasping for straws.
    Read the Scripture: And tell me if you believe it or not:

    1 Corinthians 1:17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.

    What was Paul's commisstion.

    What was not Paul's commission.
     
  8. bmerr

    bmerr New Member

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    DHK,

    bmerr here. Was Paul being disobedient to Christ when he baptized Crispus, Gaius, and the household of Stephanas?

    If baptism is not part of the gospel, then why would Paul have baptized anyone at all?

    Why was it that wherever Paul went, people got baptized, if he was preaching a gospel that didn't require baptism?

    What kind of faith did those who heard Paul preach need to have in order to be saved?

    In Christ,

    bmerr
     
  9. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    Your argument is with God, not with me.

    1 Corinthians 1:17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.

    I didn't write the Bible, the Holy Spirit of God did.

    Do you believe this verse or not?
    DHK
     
  10. bmerr

    bmerr New Member

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    DHK,

    bmerr here. I do believe this verse. I understand it, too. I do not have to try and find a way to reconcile the fact that Paul was not sent to baptize, with the fact that he did baptize.

    I understand that Paul could preach the gospel of Christ, which includes the command to be baptized for the remission of sins, he could assist a few people in obeying this command, and he could get back to preaching while the people he had assisted, assisted other people in being baptized.

    The questions to you remain unanswered. You can answer them, or ignore them. I'm not mad at you either way.

    In Christ,

    bmerr
     
  11. riverm

    riverm New Member

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    Hi DHK:

    I been following this thread and studying and taking in everyone’s opinion and I was reading over 1 Corinthians 1:17 and I decided to read the whole chapter to try and get a good grasp on 1:17.

    Starting at verse 12-16 we read: Now this I say, that every one of you saith, I am of Paul; and I of Apollos; and I of Cephas; and I of Christ. Is Christ divided? was Paul crucified for you? or were ye baptized in the name of Paul? I thank God that I baptized none of you, but Crispus and Gaius; Lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name. And I baptized also the household of Stephanas: besides, I know not whether I baptized any other.

    When I read this it seemed to me that there may have been people baptizing other’s in there own name, because Paul made this comment Is Christ divided? was Paul crucified for you? or were ye baptized in the name of Paul?….Lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name.

    First the gospel has to be preached, because faith comes by hearing and it just seemed to me that Paul made that statement in verse 17 to show the gospel has to be preached first and that his job wasn’t to just baptize only and take all the glory, which seemed like some were doing before Paul could write them and set them straight.

    Seems like there’s a lot more going on in the opening chapter than we realize, but that’s just my opinion.

    What are your thoughts on the other verses?

    Blessings
     
  12. bmerr

    bmerr New Member

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    riverm,

    bmerr here. You are to be commended for examining the verse in it's context. As you noticed, Paul himself gives us the reason for his statements in this passage, "Lest any should say that I baptized in mine own name."

    Much is made of Paul's statement in the preceding verse as well, "I thank God that I baptized none of you...", in an effort to show that if Paul had placed any importance on baptism as being essential to salvation, then he never would have said such a thing.

    But he didn't say, "I thank God that none of you were baptized..."

    Anyway, it's nice to see someone actually looking at what the Bible says. Keep it up.

    In Christ,

    bmerr
     
  13. riverm

    riverm New Member

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    Hi bmerr:

    Thanks for the comment, it’s the best I can do with no formal education, but boy do I wish I was back in my 20’s I would’ve went to bible college and studied to be a theologian, but married in my 30’s with 3 kids under 4 and debt to my neck…lol…it’s hard to just go into more debt and pay for more college, just to study the bible as a hobby.

    I just thank you guys for challenging me on both sides of the issue.

    I just try not to isolate a verse and try to develop a doctrine or ridicule another doctrine (not that anybody here is doing that and I’m not pointing fingers). I just try and use the whole context of the bible and not one verse or one particular letter, like Romans, just my .02 worth.

    Blessings to all!
     
  14. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    I fully realize the context in which Paul was speaking. There was much division in the church. There were some that were following after Paul, after Peter, and some being more "spiritual" than others simply saying they were following "Christ." It was a divided church. Paul's answer was in the form of a rebuke. But that does not the negate the principle that he was setting forth.

    That is akin to saying that the principles set forth in the "Lord's Prayer" are only for the disciples and/or the people present sitting at the feet of Jesus on the mount where the "sermon on the mount" was given. It is not applicable to us today because we weren't there. Are you willing to concede the same about the principle that Paul set forth in 1Cor.1:17?

    I don't think so. This was a principle that he set forth applicable to where ever he went, not just the Corinthian church. Let's see what it is.

    1 Corinthians 1:17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.

    1. Christ sent me (Paul) not to baptize. First we see that Paul was not sent to baptize. Call Christ a liar if you wish, but that was not the commission that Christ had called him to. Paul testifies to that. Even if he had baptized Stephanus, and a couple of others, it is of no consequence, that was not what Paul was sent to do. It was not his commission. He was not sent to baptized. That is made clear right here in Scripture. Don't argue with me on this point. Your argument should be taken up with the author of the book.

    2. Look at the differentiation Paul makes. Christ sent me not to baptize but to preach the gospel. Any objective reader can see that baptism is not part of the gospel. Paul just said it isn't. Paul was sent to preach the gospel which did not include baptism. He was sent to preach the gospel which he defines in 1Cor.15:1-5--the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus Christ. It does not include baptism. The COC deny both of these passages and say that the gospel includes baptism. Their doctrine is therefore heresy, contradicts the plain teaching of the Word of God, contradicts what Paul has plainly said twice in this chapter. Christ sent him not to baptize.
    Christ sent him to preach the gospel.
    The two are very different from each other and have nothing to do with each other. He had one commission not two. The gospel does not include baptism. How clear can this passage be!
    Just as the Lord's Prayer applies to us today, so Paul's teaching here concerning the gospel applies to us today.
    DHK
     
  15. bmerr

    bmerr New Member

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    DHK,

    bmerr here. Allow me to clarify a point, please. While the telling of the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ may not require the mention of baptism, I would say that the instruction concerning how one should respond to the gospel does include baptism.

    We could look at Peter's sermon on Pentecost of Acts 2. He preached Christ crucified, buried, and raised from the dead. So far, no mention of baptism.

    But when asked, "What shall we do?" by his hearers, Peter told them to repent,and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins.

    Or, we could look at Phillip preaching in Samaria. Acts 8:5 says he "preached Christ unto them". Then in 8:12, we find that "...when they believed Phillip preaching the kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus Christ, they were baptized, both men and women." Apparently, Phillip's instructions were the same as Peter's.

    Or, we could look at Phillip's preaching to the Ethiopian eunuch. 8:35 tells us that Phillip "...preached unto him Jesus". Oddly enough, the first thing the eunuch asked about was baptism.

    In fact, in every conversion account, we find those who believed the gospel responding to the message by being baptized.

    So, I guess you could say that the gospel is not about baptism, but baptism, preceded by faith and repentance, was commanded as the required response to the gospel. Would you be more agreeable to that?

    In Christ,

    bmerr
     
  16. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    We have been over those passages Bmerr. We have seen how you have taken them out of their contexts. We have explained them to you dozens of times the correct exegetical meaning of the verses in questions. But the simple fact is that you refuse to believe what the Bible says.
    1Cor.1:17 and 1Cor.15:1-4 are very clear on the matter of what the gospel is. Either you believe it or you don't. I prefer to believe what the Word of God teaches.
    DHK
     
  17. bmerr

    bmerr New Member

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    DHK,

    bmerr here. I'll take that as a "No".

    In Christ,

    bmerr
     
  18. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    Indeed faith and repentance preceded baptism.
    Your statement clarified: Faith and repentance are commanded as the required response to the gospel, not baptism. Baptism is no where mentioned as part of the gospel in 1Cor.1:17 and in 1Cor.15:1-4. It is clearly differentiated from it. Paul takes great pains to differentiate baptism even as "a proper response to the gospel." It has nothing to do with the gospel!
    It does not matter how long a person is baptized after a person believes or is saved, for it is not a part of salvation. For me it was two years. I was still saved during those two years. Baptism is not a part of salvation. It is step of obedience for the believer after salvation, after faith and repentance, or more accurately put, faith which includes repentance. Baptism definitely is not part of salvation.
    DHK
     
  19. ascund

    ascund New Member

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    Greetings

    Dear friend. We are not against baptism. Baptism is commanded by Jesus. Let's do it for the right reasons.

    Baptism isn't part of the gospel and not associated with justification. It isn't salvific. Baptism is the first step of sanctification.

    When Paul baptized people, it was the right thing to do - AFTER they were justified by faith in Jesus.

    Justification and sanctification harmonize well with REformed theology. In Trentine theology, justification is set against sanctification with sanctification winning!


    Simple child-like PASSIVE faith. If faith becomes any part human activity, then it is not faith but works. We can passively accept God's lavish free gift of salvation. We cannot actively do anything to earn it.

    Lloyd
     
  20. bmerr

    bmerr New Member

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    DHK & ascund,

    bmerr here. Perhaps this should be on the "Baptism--Why?" thread, but since we've come to it, let me ask a couple of questions.

    The claim is that baptism has nothing to do with salvation, but it is also admitted that it is commanded by Jesus. So, we should be baptized, but for the "right reasons". Do I have it right so far?

    If so, what are the "right reasons"? Why should one be baptized at all, if it's not neccessary? Please provide book, chapter, and verse to support your responses.

    Also, in reference to the "simple child-like faith", may I draw your attention to Matt 18:2-3? Here we read,

    2 And Jesus called a little child unto him, and set him in the midst of them,
    3 And said, Verily I say unto you, Except ye be converted, and become as little children, ye shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven.

    Notice the kind of faith the child had. When Jesus called him, he came. He was obedient to the command of another. He submitted himself. He didn't just wander into the midst of them, and he didn't stand there acknowledging the fact that Jesus called him but not go to Him, expecting Him to drag him over. He responded to Jesus and was set in the midst of them.

    It is repeatedly implied that we in the church of Christ teach that man "earns" his salvation. This is a false allegation. Obeying God's commands does not "earn" anything. Obedience is simply the manifestation of one's faith. It is a living, saving faith.

    Remember, it is only those "he that doeth the will" of the Father that will enter into the kingdom of Heaven (Matt 7:21).

    Sit back passively and hope for the best if you want to, I'll do my best to be faithful to Christ.

    In Christ,

    bmerr
     
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