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Where has this gotten you?

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by Precepts, Feb 21, 2004.

  1. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    Peace and love to you all in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour!

    russell55,

    I appreciate the efforts you took to post your findings of definitions in your dictionary, but I disagree with your conclusion. The definition that I gave came from a common Webster's dictionary, not an Oxford English Dictionary. It would be beneficial to those who have the modern versions to have an oxford dictionary in order to understand that the word deceive has that meaning. However, does this not defeat the whole purpose and reasoning of the modern versions, that one would be able to read and understand God's word more easily? Gee, if all I had to rely upon, was my webster's dictionary, being the common folk here, and thinking my version of the Bible was to be so easy to read and understand, I would think that that passage was saying that God can be deceived. If I didn't think that and looked it up in my webster's dictionary, I would not be able to come away with a different understanding, unlike the one who might happen to have and Oxford dictionary and then take the 3 or 4 definition of it.

    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
  2. Precepts

    Precepts New Member

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    Oh I mind allright, but I minded it ROFLOL!

    No, I don't mind you quoting me abit, Sister, I'm just glad you didn't have to go to 4 years college and language school to understand!
    [​IMG]
     
  3. Precepts

    Precepts New Member

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    Why do we have to dig so profusely to understand the difference between "flatter" (which is all they did, and that w/o any accomplishment) or "deceive" (which runs with an automatic understanding that one is fooled, duped, snowed over, snookered, etc., I think you should get the picture) ?

    The words are not at first glance taken as equivelent in "suitability", that is what we are trying, futilally at that it seems, to show yall, but I have to echo Sister Michelle's sentiment here, as she also echoes mine, yall are going to extreme lengths to defend something so obviously contrary to the Truth of God's Word. If anything, in this case in point, the NasV complicates, rather than simplifies, that which is already pretty simple to understand, and that w/o a dictionary, to the common man.

    This isn't any "tempest in a tea pot", there seems to be a tempest, but a tea pot doth not a kettle make.
     
  4. russell55

    russell55 New Member

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    Well, where better to look for definitions of the King's English than an English dictionary!

    But if you are honest, you will see that there are several definitions given for each word in Webster's too, and you must choose your definition by what fits in the word's context. And actually, there is NO definition of "flatter" in my Webster's that fits:

    1. to praise excessively .... (Noop)
    2. BEGUILE (Uh-oh! Doesn't beguile mean to deceive?)
    3. to encourage or gratify....(doesn't work)
    4. to portray too favorably...(can't be that one either)
    5. to display to advantage...(not really what the verse is driving at)

    So, which definition from Websters are you using?

    Why not just admit you need to drop this argument? This one doesn't help your case in support of the KJV, because it only works if you hold to a double standard--a different criteria for judging the NAS than you use for the KJV.
     
  5. Precepts

    Precepts New Member

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    What I think is really sad is that you would spin my post to try and indicate something so foolish.

    I believe, Skan, if you would study that initial word in the verse "Nevertheless", you might see that it has the negative and deciding authority over anything that follows the thought intent.

    To paraphrase; "Never did they "flatter' God, nor did they "lie" to Him, though they did try. And the less is what they thought to get away with, but they should have done what was right in the first place."

    The NasV reads they "deceived" Him, nothing to indicate anything otherwise, just simply they deceived the LORD and got away with their lies to Him, that is WRONG for the NasV to implicate the LORD as able to be deceived. Plain and simple.

    AV 1611 KJB, simply SUPERIOR!
     
  6. Precepts

    Precepts New Member

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    Well, where better to look for definitions of the King's English than an English dictionary!

    But if you are honest, you will see that there are several definitions given for each word in Webster's too, and you must choose your definition by what fits in the word's context. And actually, there is NO definition of "flatter" in my Webster's that fits:

    1. to praise excessively .... (Noop)
    2. BEGUILE (Uh-oh! Doesn't beguile mean to deceive?)
    3. to encourage or gratify....(doesn't work)
    4. to portray too favorably...(can't be that one either)
    5. to display to advantage...(not really what the verse is driving at)

    So, which definition from Websters are you using?

    Why not just admit you need to drop this argument? This one doesn't help your case in support of the KJV, because it only works if you hold to a double standard--a different criteria for judging the NAS than you use for the KJV.
    </font>[/QUOTE]O.K., Russell55, Let me put it in simpleton's terms:

    We see they tried to flatter God, yall see they deceived God, which will you hold to?

    Yall try to force the defintion of "flatter" to mean deceived, never is that understood even by the definition of beguile. There is no "double-standard" here. We've just nailed yall to the wall with this one and yall do everything to try and wiggle out of it, uh, off of it.

    You are right that "flatter" is defined as "beguile" but the NasV uses the past tense of the verb as in "deceived". Now if the KJB said "flattered", then "beguiled" would be the case, but that just isn't true now is it? No.
     
  7. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    Peace and love to you all in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour!

    russell55,

    I am just a common person here, and happened to have a Webster's New World Dictionary Third College Edition. I quoted all the definitions of those two words that were available to me in this dictionary. It is the only dictionary I have, and quite frankly, the only one I need. I will quote to you something precepts stated that states the 100% absolute truth concerning this and specifically to this discusstion:


    Precepts Quote:

    Why do we have to dig so profusely to understand the difference between "flatter" (which is all they did, and that w/o any accomplishment) or "deceive" (which runs with an automatic understanding that one is fooled, duped, snowed over, snookered, etc., I think you should get the picture) ?

    The words are not at first glance taken as equivelent in "suitability", that is what we are trying, futilally at that it seems, to show yall, but I have to echo Sister Michelle's sentiment here, as she also echoes mine, yall are going to extreme lengths to defend something so obviously contrary to the Truth of God's Word. If anything, in this case in point, the NasV complicates, rather than simplifies, that which is already pretty simple to understand, and that w/o a dictionary, to the common man.
    --------------------------------------------------

    Take notice ecspecially of the last 7 lines of this quote.

    Thanks again Precepts!

    Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
  8. skanwmatos

    skanwmatos New Member

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    You have not spoken the truth. You have continued to speak falsehood. I pointed out the falsity of your statements and you ignored them.
    I have never said I consider you evil. I said the false teaching you keep posting is evil.
    Yes. Proverbs 26:5.
    That is another untruth.
    I am not right all the time. This is the second time you have posted this falsehood in violation of Exodus 20:16.
    The inspired word is "pathah" and is translated by the KJV as entice 10 times, deceive 8 times, persuade 4 times, flatter twice, allure once, enlarge once, silly one once, and silly once.
    Then the King James Version of the Bible is wrong, according to you, for the King James Version of the Bible translates "pathah" deceive 8 times.
    Yes.
    No, even a stopped clock is right twice a day.
    No, to correct your horrible error. To lift you out of the mire of false doctrine. To elevate you in the grace of God. To edify you in your understanding so that you can be delivered from the terrible cult you have been caught up in.
     
  9. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    Peace and love to you all in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour!

    Skanw,

    Skanw quote:
    I have never said I consider you evil. I said the false teaching you keep posting is evil.
    --------------------------------------------------

    What false teaching do I keep posting?


    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
  10. Precepts

    Precepts New Member

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    It's really funny that we are dealing with the one case in point of the use of "pathah" in Ps 78:36 defined as "flatter", correctly I might add since it is in the imperfect tense, and Skan keeps alluding to the plethora of the definitions and turns it into a device to inflict wounds to his brother or sister in Christ and to denigrate the KJB which he also says he loves as the Word of God.

    "Flatter" fits the context, "deceived" fits Skan's pretext.

    WE used to try and get other kids on the playground to stop throwing a fit by asking them to play with us, when they insisted on pitching fits and stomping their feet raising a cloud of dust, we simply went on with our play and left them standing there foaming at the mouth. [​IMG]
     
  11. russell55

    russell55 New Member

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    Okay, simpleton's terms: If you add "tried to" to the KJV, then you need to add "tried to" to the NASV. Otherwise, are judging the NASV by a different standard than the KMV.

    Divers weights, [and] divers measures, both of them [are] alike abomination to the LORD.

    Out with arguments based on a double standard!

    "Did flatter" IS the past tense of flatter. "Flattered" in modern English is the exact equivalent to "did flatter" in 1611 English.

    Out with arguments based on a misunderstanding of verb tenses!

    The KJV translation of this word is acceptable. The NASV translation of this word is acceptable. They tried to flatter God; they tried to deceive Him. Using equal standards, they both pass.

    C'mon guys. This is one of the lamest arguments I've seen on here. There is NO ISSUE! And in your attempts to keep on convincing yourselves it's an issue you are making statements that are just plain not true and "beguiling" with sleight of hand--adding "tried to" to the KJV text, but not to the NASV. When you have to resort to false statements and trickery, the game's up.

    You've got better arguments than this. Find them. This boat won't float.

    [ February 26, 2004, 09:24 PM: Message edited by: russell55 ]
     
  12. russell55

    russell55 New Member

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    I'm just a common person, too. And when I see the word "flatter", what does it mean to me? It means that someone is giving someone a compliment they don't deserve. But I use my noggin when I read the verse, and I know that these guys didn't REALLY flatter God. I understand it in exactly the same way Precepts does--they TRIED TO flatter God.

    But if I allow Precepts use his noggin and clarify the meaning of the verse by adding "tried to" to the KJV, then NASV readers ought to be allowed to use their noggins and add "tried to" for clarification to the NASV, too, don't you think?

    Whatever standard you use for one, you need to use for the other. That's just common sense, isn't it?
     
  13. Precepts

    Precepts New Member

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    O.K., let's try it your way:

    They tried to "flatter" KJB

    They tried to "deceived" NasV

    "Did flatter" is in the imperfect tense, "flattered", which is NOT the case of the King James, or reality for that matter, is in the perfect tense.

    Russell, your English Grammar needs a tune up, your NasV needs an over-haul.
     
  14. skanwmatos

    skanwmatos New Member

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    The false teaching that the modern versions are "corrupt" and that etymologically and philologically correct words such as "deceit" are wrong and corrupt.
     
  15. skanwmatos

    skanwmatos New Member

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    Once again you display your ignorance regarding grammar and syntax. The fact that "pathah" is an imperfect simply means the action was incomplete. They tried to deceive God but they failed and did not complete their deception. What is more important, which you seem to have missed, is that the word is a piel stem indicating a deliberate act. They deliberately were continually deceptive in their worship of God.
    No, I simply point out what the inspired word of God says, that "flatter him with their mouth" is synonymous with "they lied unto him with their tongues." It is you who keeps denying what God has inspired. And it is you and your sister who keep attacking the word of God, making slanderous accusations, and bearing false witness.
    The inspired word of God is not a pretext, but if God can't get you to believe His word I doubt I will be able to unshackle your mind, and free you from the dark dungeon of false teaching which you are in bondage to.
     
  16. Precepts

    Precepts New Member

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    The false teaching that the modern versions are "corrupt" and that etymologically and philologically correct words such as "deceit" are wrong and corrupt. </font>[/QUOTE]So deceit isn't corrupt and is correct?
     
  17. Precepts

    Precepts New Member

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    I'm glad we agree, but now explain why the NasV contradicts what you just said by using the past perfect tense "deceived"?

    I NEVER said their action wasn't deliberate, just as your action is deliberate. I cannot fathom why you deliberately twist what I've said as if I said something contrary? But then again....
    Then I must apologize, I should have said the indications are synnymous, but the results are synonymous in the KJB as well. That being they only tried to flatter God and they also tried to lie. They did flatter; they did lie, but they did not deceive; though they still lied. But by what the NasV says, that isn't true; They "lied" but God wasn't "deceived". Seems your rule of synonymous parallelism doesn't apply to the NasV.

    Your objection is over-ruled by your grammatical rule.

    I'm sorry if I wasn't clear on the issue of "SP" on the behalf of the KJB, but that isn't true on the behalf of the NasV now is it? No.

    You slander the doctrine of brotherly love by your accustaions, brother, while also bearing the false witness here concerning the subject at hand. I never once, neither did Michelle once attack or slander the Word of God, the Truth has and still will point out your error and the NasV translator's error as well.
    Now Skan equates himself with God.

    I believe the KJB.

    What you see as bondage is only the Shadow of His Wings.

    It snowed last night and rained most of today , that doesn't happen in dungeons, but it does happen in the free space known to most as the Great Wide Open.

    Meanwhile, me and the rest of the Bloodwashed Band will be rejoicing in the Truth of the Glorious Gospel while you stand around kicking up dust. [​IMG]
     
  18. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    Peace and love to you all in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour!

    Skanw,

    I am sorry to see that you consider standing for the integrity of and purity of God's word as a false teaching. You are making it seem as though those who warn about this, and point these things out as though they are only focusing on small and minor issues (twisting and spinning things again), which in fact is not the truth at all. It is so much more than just the word "deceived" and the word "morning star" and the deletion of many parts of our Lord's prayer that are at the heart of this issue also. It is the OVERALL additions/omittions and changes of words (that is changing the word to alter the meaning and understanding of the true meaning intended)that is evidenced in the modern versions that is the real problem, and the real corruption.

    It is also very sad that you find my statement in error that the Holy Spirit inspired men to write God's inspired word, and that those who are indwelt with the Holy Spirit of God will EXHALT THE LORD GOD ALMIGHTY and not the opposite of that. I find that what I have said here is in line with what God has said, and I am at peace with God on this. Think what you want about me, I know in my heart and from God's word of truth, that His truth will prevail, and I know that I will be on the prevailing side. I shall not fear men, but God.

    I will continue to pray for you Skanw, and pray the Lord continue to bless you.

    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
  19. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    Amen, Brother HomeBound -- Preach it!

    Before I came here I knew the New
    International Bible is God's infallible,
    inerrant, inspired word of God.

    Before i came here i knew that
    God has two eternal words:
    1. the written word of God - the Holy Bible
    2. the living word of God - Messiah Iesus*

    * i use the name I find in my King
    James Bible.
     
  20. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    Michelle: "It is also very sad that you find my statement
    in error that the Holy Spirit inspired men to write God's
    inspired word, and that those who are indwelt with
    the Holy Spirit of God will EXHALT THE LORD GOD ALMIGHTY
    and not the opposite of that."

    I did not find this in the posts of Skanwmatos after
    you mentioned them at 12:22PM CST on page 7 and before you
    said the above at 10:43 CST. I do not have time
    to search more than the space between two statements
    for his transgressions. Please point them out to me.
    Thank you.

    [​IMG]
     
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