Who are the “sons of God” in Genesis 6:2,4?

First, you gotta teach me how to do his piece by piece quote thing-it make it a lot easier 4 me-lol But As you said-
“ Possibly, but this still goes back to my first reply that ability is needed, and we don't find that. In fact, when comparing Bible against Bible, and modern science, it is impossible for different species to cross breed.”
Your argument runs that we must prove they can before they can—well if Gen 6 is about angels it proves they can—but here’s a challenge –prove they can’t—find 1 verse in Scripture that refers to the sexual capability or procreative ability of angels
And as far as Science goes-Ah-Science—well science needs a test case-& if you can find 1 instance where Science has tested angels-then this might be relevant. But since its angels were talking about—the invisible spiritual beings who are the closest things to shape shifters to ever exist (ie an angelophony)—there is nothing even in the same area that Science could begin to compare it too. And when we compare Bible with Bible we do have references to the angelic interpretation of Gen 6 (please see my post 75).

And as you said—“ Actually, I believe that phrase is used in regards to those who are in union with God as opposed, whether it be an Angel, Israelite, or Christian.”
You can believe that all you want brother-but I’d challenge you to find a Hebrew lexicon where the exact bene elohim phrase means anything other than angels-lol
Now as far as the Nephilim go—this is a whole other story

 

I think this actually is a very good possibility-that Gen 6 has a double possible triple meaning that combines all that happened before the flood—where you have Sethites intermarrying Cainites, rulers acting as tyrants, & fallen angels making a whole mess of things. Or possibly the Sethites or angels being the rulers. Now there are a lot of other problems with tha Sethite theory I haven’t yet addressed—but I just want you to know I’m not opposed to this suggestion.

 

As you'll see I'm still learning the quote thing-lol But

But something in Gen 6 does hint at the thwarting of nature—The contrast made between the daughters of men & the Sons of God (The whole point is that there is something unnatural or forbidden about this union). Consider this, the phrase “daughters of men” cannot refer solely to Cainite women. Adham is a Hebrew generic term sometimes used to denote mankind as a whole. It is highly unlikely that adham is used in Genesis 6:1 to mean all mankind and then restricted to one particular family in the next verse (6:2). The reference to the “daughters of man” cannot be limited to the genealogy of Seth or Cain—they simply belong to the category of humans of the female gender. Now to add to this that the focus of the verses is to contrast these females of the human gender with whoever the “Sons of God” are. Since adham cannot be limited to Cainite women (due to the use of the term in Gen 6:1 then again in 6:2)—then their is no hint of this being Sehite-Cainite marriages—b/c adham (daughters of men) includes both Cainite & Sethite women. Add to this the normal Hebrew meaning of bene elohim (ie celestial beings) & one can see a real contrast between “the daughters of man” (ie normal human women) & the sons of God (ie angels). There is no real distinction if both groups are human b/c the ability to reproduce among men has been established & is not forbidden or unnatural (esp in the genealogy chapters). The point of Gen 6:2 is to show contrast & the unnatural/forbidden union that takes place between the 2 groups. There is nothing contrasting about humans reproducing & forbidden inter-marriage in not talkd about before this event anywhere in Gen 1-5. Thus, what ever happened is a unique situation introduced for the 1st time in Gen 6.

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What you are referring to is cross-breeding—if an angel can take the form of a man or possess a man—would this be cross-breeding—the problem is—nothing can shape shift like an angel or possess something like an angel—thus there is nothing to compare it to scientifically—what real test could be run that would be relevant to this capability?. One other thing-Can it be scientifically demonstrated that a virgin can give birth without ever having a sexual experience with a man or without artificial insemination—yet you don’t have a problem with the lack of science on that 1-lol

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it clear from Ps 104:4, Heb 1:7, 14 that they are spiritual beings & Jesus says in Lk 24:37-39 that spirits do not have the same flesh & bones as humans—thus there body is clearly unlike ours. Does this make them invisible? For centuries Jews & Christians have both taught they do not have physical or material bodies & the fact they have no flesh & bone—causes them to be invisible. But this s not a necessity—nevertheless—when they appeared to Abraham, Lot, ect—they appeared like other men & even carried out the same functions as normal men & since their normal bodies are not flesh & bone—they would have had to take a appearance that is not their normal non-flesh & bone appearance (known as an angelophany).

The term angel in the Greek is angelos & it means messenger & many believe the 7 churches in Rev where not spiritual angels but human messengers—considering the original Greek has angelos—which can also mean a human messenger. But as far as the exact bene elohim phrase in Gen 6—it only refers to angels in Scripture & is Hebrew idiom for angels—keep in mind it’s the exact Hebrew we are talking about not English equivalents. That’s why I said good luck finding a Hebrew lexicon to support ur idea on that 1.

 

He’s talking about Luke 3:38—a proposal that neglects the NT is in Greek while the OT in Hebrew & does not consider the original Hebrew bene elohim phrase but attempts to theorize based on English equivalents.

 

its Luke brother not Matt

 

Amen sister!!! Glad to have my (fallen) Angelic theory partner back!!!

 

No friend don’t feel bad—I felt rude for saying that abruptly! Don’t worry I’ve had plenty occasions in a sermon I’ve accidentally said the wrong verse-lol

 

Well first off the Hebrew does not demand that it be worded as if the Nephilim are on the earth before—the “when” could very well be that they are on the earth when this event happens—b/c it is this event that causes them to be there. But second—some believe that the Hebrew should be translated as the Nephilim are on the earth when this happens & say the Nephilim aren’t the angel babies but only the men of renown. (sorry for any misspellings I tried to type fast)