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Who is biblical and right?

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by greatday, Sep 29, 2003.

  1. greatday

    greatday New Member

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  2. Jailminister

    Jailminister New Member

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    I am not sure if you find a problem in these scriptures, but the 2 proverbs are related to the husband-wife relationship. The Corinthian passage refers to unmarried relationships.
     
  3. greatday

    greatday New Member

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    So if a wife is a good thing why didn't apostle Paul marry?

     
  4. Pastor Larry

    Pastor Larry <b>Moderator</b>
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    If you notice the colon in v. 1 of 1 Cor 7, you realize that "It is not good for a man to touch a woman" is the saying that the Corinthians were asking Paul about. Someone had been teaching that. Thus, he was not commanding that; they were asking him.

    Paul commands each man to have his own wife so that he does not commit fornication. He tells the husband and wife not to withhold sexual intimacy from each other. Therefore, Paul is not telling them not to touch each other. He is addressing a false teachign in the church. He is saying the opposite of "It is good not to touch a woman."
     
  5. ScottEmerson

    ScottEmerson Active Member

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    </font>[/QUOTE]To add to Pastor Larry:

    He was married, once. We know this because he was a Pharisee, and marriage was a qualification of this. Some think she died. I think that she left him.

    We must understand the passage in question (and indeed, the entire chapter) as Paul instructing the Corinthians on his own feelings concerning marriage. It may help if you write on a sheet of paper two columns. On the first, write down the commands from God. On the second, write down the suggestions of Paul. That may help.
     
  6. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    And "touch" in Greek idiom was like "know" in Hebrew. Adam "knew" his wife **wink, wink** and she bore a son.

    Talking about intimate marital relationship, not "Tag, you're it" . . unless some of our married couples still play that, too!! :rolleyes:
     
  7. greatday

    greatday New Member

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    Did his wife leave him after he became a mass murderer?
     
  8. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    History teaches Sha'ul (Paul) would have been both married AND have a male heir. When he said he "suffered the loss of all things", he meant it.

    My guess - and trust me, that's all it is - would be she died. He seems unencumbered by family while a devout Jew (persecuting people of the Way). And no implication of them AFTER his conversion.

    Not unusual, since women are rarely mentioned. But Paul makes more mention of specific women - Lydia, Eunice, Lois, Sapphira, Priscilla, Phoebe - than most writers.
     
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