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Why did the AV1611 translators say this?

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by David J, Oct 18, 2004.

  1. Pastor_Bob

    Pastor_Bob Well-Known Member

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    If you can make this assertion, then I can most certainly assert that they were commenting on translations of like textual basis.
     
  2. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    About 75-80 percent of the KJV is word-for-word (sometimes entire verses) the same as the Catholic Douay-Rheims (DR).

    However the Douay-Rheims NT (translated from the Latin Vulgate) was published in 1582, so it would seem to me that they meant Catholic translations as well.

    In fact they had mixed feelings about the Vulgate, sometime praising it, sometimes giving it a put-down and on a few occasions departing from the traditional text in favor of the DR/Vulgate.


    HankD
     
  3. Anti-Alexandrian

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    Originaly posted by Pastor_Bob:
    And I will most certainly assert the same thing.I can assert this by the rejection of the Alexandrian readings by the KJB translators.
     
  4. natters

    natters New Member

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    Again, yet the called the Septuagint, which is more dissimilar than any modern version (and is also Alexandrian, BTW), "the word of God" despite its textual inaccuracies.
     
  5. David J

    David J New Member

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    And I will most certainly assert the same thing.I can assert this by the rejection of the Alexandrian readings by the KJB translators. Anti-A


    Acts 13:18 "according to the Sept. [Septuagint] and so Chrysost."

    Taken from the 1611KJV.

    Anti-A,

    You might should check the 1611 before making such an assumption. The 1611 translators referenced the Septuagint in the marginal notes.

    KJVO myth blown away yet again by the 1611KJV.

    Other than the little KJVO myths this has been a good thread guys! Good info!

    Thanks all,
     
  6. Ziggy

    Ziggy Well-Known Member
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    Pastor_Bob: “then I can most certainly assert that they were commenting on translations of like textual basis.”

    AA: “And I will most certainly assert the same thing. I can assert this by the rejection of the Alexandrian readings by the KJB translators.”

    I will grant that the KJV translators were generally translating from the printed TR editions, with some Latin Vulgate readings thrown in. However, AA’s comment is inaccurate.

    Case in point, Mt 10:8, where the KJV phrase “raise the dead” is *not* the dominant text found in nearly all Greek manuscripts (which simply do not include those words), but in fact is found in AA’s despised and rejected Alexandrian manuscripts:

    The phrase is included by Aleph (Sinaiticus), B (Vaticanus), and C (Ephraemi Rescriptus), along with the (AA would say “corrupt”) Western manuscript D (Codex Bezae). In addition, a very few other Alexandrian and non-Byzantine MSS also support the inclusion of this phrase (e.g. N 0281 33 892 are Alexandrian; f1, f13 565 700mg generally considered Caesarean); but the “majority” of MSS, the Byzantine text, simply was *not* followed by the KJV translators, who in this location chose to follow the *Alexandrian* reading rather than to “reject” such.

    So, it would seem in this instance that Anti-Alexandrian has to be Pro-Alexandrian. Must be some sort of "advanced revelation". [​IMG]
     
  7. av1611jim

    av1611jim New Member

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    I am curious.
    Since WHEN did marginal notes become Scripture?
    I would agree that the translators included ALTERNATE renderings for the purpose of clarification or explaination. I will not concede however that they meant the alternate renderings to be their FIRST choice. This is so obvious as to be almost laughable.
    Therefore; my question would be, just exactly what did you hope to prove? You certainly did NOT prove your conclusion.
    In His service;
    Jim
     
  8. Ransom

    Ransom Active Member

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    Pastor_Bob said:

    If you can make this assertion, then I can most certainly assert that they were commenting on translations of like textual basis.

    Except that my "assertion" is supported by direct statement of the translators, and yours is supported by nothing.

    That entire preface is a polemic against the Roman way of thinking about Bible translation, of which the passage under discussion is but one part.

    [ October 19, 2004, 12:13 PM: Message edited by: Ransom ]
     
  9. Ransom

    Ransom Active Member

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    HankD said:

    About 75-80 percent of the KJV is word-for-word (sometimes entire verses) the same as the Catholic Douay-Rheims (DR).

    However the Douay-Rheims NT (translated from the Latin Vulgate) was published in 1582, so it would seem to me that they meant Catholic translations as well.


    The complete Douay Bible was not published intil 1610. Perhaps the preface was written earlier in the work, which would also explain why the authors quote an earlier translation of the Bible in the front matter instead of the one they were actually working on.
     
  10. Ransom

    Ransom Active Member

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    av1611jim asked:

    Since WHEN did marginal notes become Scripture?

    This is a dishonest question, since saying the margin notes are correct is not equivalent to saying they are Scripture.
     
  11. manchester

    manchester New Member

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    The KJV translators were influenced by the Catholic Douay-Rheims version. The KJV translators borrowed heavily from the DR.
     
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