Why Did The TR...

What an amazing stretch of a statement. "Theos" never appears in the phrase translated "God forbid."

Hopefully that clarifies any vagaries.

 

I think you have misunderstood what C4K meant, which was (I assumed):

The Greek word for "God" was not in the Greek that the AV/KJV translates as "God forbid".​

To say that is to state a fact, and is in no way "audacious". I for one certainly never for a moment imagined that C4K was suggesting that God was not "in" (whether in the sense of "mentioned in" or in the sense of "(fully) involved in the production of" the original Greek New Testament.

 

I think that it has been proven in a now closed thread that a certain person's reasoning capabilities are somewhat incapacitated by their Bible version prejudices.

But that's just my opinion.

 

Funny thing here is that I personally think "God forbid" is an excellent rendering

 

I agree. I think it is perfectly good.
But I'm going to argue with people who apparently
disagree with logical arguments.
The best translation of a particular phrase is a PERSONAL OPINION
not a salvation issue.

\o/ Hashem be Praised! \o/

 

All other snide comments ignored and lay aside, this is not a salvation issue, it is specifically an issue of sanctification. Where God forbids specific things in a person's life ,or, in the case where God forbids certain presumptions, which would go contrary to His word, He, God, wouldn't have them to be otherwise understood.

If it concerns the word of God, for God to forbid it is far better than if Jose were to say "No way!"

Now if mexdeaf wishes to continue with his derogatory remarks against my reasoning abilities, in plain view of the moderators without any "snippets", my case remains justified as truth.

 

I know, but my point was well taken.

I am still amazed how so many hail Greek to have such a superiority over English when so much remains vague about the Greek meaning when English is precise.

 

Correction: God must be praised for the consistency.:godisgood:

 

I read many posts here between the Greek words and "God forbid." The argument on this thread between the Greek and "God forbid" is that God is not in the Greek text. The argument between them is to contradict between you and the Oxford dictionary.

 

Actually, I'm pretty sure the Oxford Dictionary does not even address the Greek phrase, "μη γενοιτο". If it does, I know I'd sure like to see the quoted citation to that effect.

However, I should fully expect that it surely does address the English phrase "God forbid", and would likewise expect Webster's Unabridged Dictionary to do the same.

But the question was about the "why" of the Greek phrase being rendered in this manner, in the OP.

Ed

 

There are a lot of closed threads and a lot of folks with Bible version prejudices in this forum, including myself.

However, as daddy used to say- if you throw a rock into a pack of dogs, the one who yelps is the one who got hit.

 

I for one don't hail Greek as superior to English. I do say, however, that because the New Testament was originally written in Greek, there can be considerable value in knowing or finding out what an original Greek word or phrase actually meant, rather than looking up, in an English dictionary, the word as translated from Greek into English. An example is 1 Timothy 2.11:

Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.​

From the English, that sounds as though women should be absolutely mute in services. But the Greek word translated as "silence" there can mean "quietness, a description of the life of one who stays at home doing his or her own work, and does not officiously meddle with the affairs of others."

As to the matter of whether English is a more precise language than Greek, I don't know. I know that there are plenty of imprecise words and phrases in English, but whether they are more numerous or more imprecise than those in New Testament Greek, I am not qualified to say.

 

I am not a pack of dogs in my individuality and your remark was directed specifically at me. So if your intent was to throw a rock, why then are you so abusive?

 

I will have to disagree in the fact the word of God reads, "with all subjection".

Now if the rendering had been, "in subjection", one might reach your conclusion, but the phrase contains much more than meets the eye.

The phrase deals specifically with the order of service in the house of God and in dealing with business matters. The context proves this and has been debated by dissenters for centuries.

The problems occur when one is subjective to the Greek being translated into English and wants to forget cultural and alternate meanings according to things that typlify a certain thought expressed in another tongue.

To "fault" the KJB translators so often and denigrate their intelligence is creating a strawman that is easily burnt to ashes when one considers the reputation of each. There was no conjecture on their behalf and they weren't stabbing in the air to render the translation into words that weren't implied by the context.

That practice is why we have certain words translated into our English due to that certain implication found in the original tongues.

"God forbid" would certainly be the root of any modern terminology and thus more accurate.

 

And if we aptly apply that to modern translations?

 

I should have quoted from the AV for you, then the matter of "with all subjection" would not have come up, as the word "silence" is there in both the NKJV and the AV.

Nor was I seeking to fault the AV translators; my knowledge of 17th century English is not sufficient for me to give definite decisions as to what every word used in their translation meant in their time. I certainly did not mean to denigrate their intelligence. I am sorry that you got that impression.

However, I still maintain that "God forbid" cannot be more accurate, because even though it was an English idiom, to see the words "God forbid" in the bible, God's own Word, would lead one to suppose that Paul was calling upon God to prevent something happening. Now of course, we know from other verses that Paul would readily acknowledge that the Christian can do nothing without God. But that is not what he is saying when he writes what is translated as "God forbid".