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Featured Why Does the RCC have extra Books In their canon?

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by DaChaser1, Feb 21, 2012.

  1. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    From what you say, my conclusion would be that you consider Jesus one of those "anti-Christian" Jews. He also said "Salvation is of the Jews." He used the same OT Scriptures that the Jews used at that time, the book that the Jews themselves considered complete, inspired and their final authority. It was their canon of Scripture. Jesus used it, and never disputed it as Scripture. It is odd that you would stand against Christ and infer that He was one of a bunch of "anti-Christian Jews."
     
  2. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    This is not obvious. It is bogus. The two passages are hardly even similar. They are historical in content and that is as far as one can take it. There is absolutely no proof that one came from the other. You have no solid proof.
     
  3. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    Why blame Luther. Hundreds of years before that Jerome vehemently opposed putting the same books into the Latin Vulgate. He stood against them as being part of the inspired Scripture.
     
  4. DaChaser1

    DaChaser1 New Member

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    Another good response, see especially section which books in canon?
    christianknight.wordpress.com/2012/02/19/apologetics-lesson-4-do...
     
  5. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    There is no chance of such a change. Most scholars agree that 1 Timothy was written after Paul was released from his two year imprisonment recorded in Acts 28 and before 2 Timothy was written in his second imprisonment. Most date 1 Timothy in 63-64 A.D. Philippians was written while in the first imprisonment about 61 and he still addresses the Philippian leaders as "bishops and deacons."

    There is no possible way that in one or two years such a transition could have been made or was made.

    In addition Titus was written within the same time frame between the first and second imprisonment in Rome and "elders" are still being ordained in every city in Crete (Tit. 1:5).

    To argue such an idea is simply to ignore the contrary evidence and presume on the basis of pure silence.
     
  6. Michael Wrenn

    Michael Wrenn New Member

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    Well, looks like I may not be able to post here as often. I'm going to be helping with my mother; I'll take her for a biopsy next Tuesday.

    I request everyone's prayers.

    Take care, everyone, and if your beliefs give you comfort and do not lead to apostasy, I wish you peace. I wish we could stay away from condemnation of each other, even though we may have strong disagreements. We should try to treat each other with love and compassion as we journey through this veil of tears. Life is brief, and there is enough strife and suffering without us inflicting same on each other.

    God bless!
     
  7. Walter

    Walter Well-Known Member
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    Prayers ascending for your mother. Thanks for such a thoughtful and sincere post! God bless you too!
     
  8. Michael Wrenn

    Michael Wrenn New Member

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    Thanks, friend. I greatly appreciate your prayers.
     
  9. WestminsterMan

    WestminsterMan New Member

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    I will pray for you and your mother. May God continue to bless you.

    WM
     
  10. Michael Wrenn

    Michael Wrenn New Member

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    Thank you very much. And may God bless you, too.

    I need all the prayers I can get, in every area. I am still a long way from entire sanctification. :)

    May God bless, strengthen, and encourage us all as we go through the inevitable ordeals and trials of this life.
     
  11. preachinjesus

    preachinjesus Well-Known Member
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    One of the funniest things I've read on here lately. Kudos!:thumbs:
     
  12. preachinjesus

    preachinjesus Well-Known Member
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    Where do you come up with these conclusions? Just curious. Because this isn't true. The OT was in flux since Jamnia (or Yavneh) hadn't happened yet (of course Jamnia isn't necessarily authoritative either.) Present scholarship doubts the Israelites had a final canon in place before AD 70.

    Please check your grammatically challenged posts before putting them up. This is confusing. I think you're saying that the NT canon (as we have it) is the inspired canon and not the Apocryphal texts. This is accurate. However, the Apocrypha was added sometime after the official acceptation of the canon in AD 397 at the Synod of Carthage. While the Catholic Apocrypha was made official at the Council Trent in 1546.
     
    #72 preachinjesus, Feb 24, 2012
    Last edited by a moderator: Feb 24, 2012
  13. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    Wise words:thumbsup: Prayers being said here for you and your mother; she is blessed to have such a son.
     
  14. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    If this is so, then why is Titus responsible for 'appointing elders in every city' (kai katasteses kata polin presbyterous hos ego soi dietaxamen) - Titus 1:5b. Clearly Titus' role was regional (the whole island of Crete) rather than congregational. No silence here!
     
  15. Earth Wind and Fire

    Earth Wind and Fire Well-Known Member
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    I'm still (after 55 years) trying to figure out their errors on baptism, Annunciation, Mortal & Venial sins, Transubstantiation, Their Claims to being the one true church, The pope, the red caps, Justification by Works, Limbo & Purgatory, the Mass and I can endlessly go on..... now you want to know about books of the bible? (rolls eyes)
     
  16. Michael Wrenn

    Michael Wrenn New Member

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    Thanks, Matt!
     
  17. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    Again, Martin Luther's influence is a moot point. Jerome discarded the Apocrypha long before that, greatly protesting against it in his time.

    As far as Jamnia is concerned, far too much emphasis is put on it then should be.
    http://www.ibri.org/RRs/RR013/13jamnia.html

    This is a very good article and the entire article has a lot of good information in it. The OT Canon was complete long before Christ was born. It had no Apocrypha in it. They are not inspired books, and never were.
     
  18. Michael Wrenn

    Michael Wrenn New Member

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    Matt, since no one has replied to this yet, I wanted to ask you a question: Since you believe that this and other scripture points to a "bishop" as being distinguished from a presbyter/elder in some instances, why do you further distinguish that this "bishop" was a third order of ministry, as taught by Catholics and Anglicans, rather than just an "office", as taught by Wesley/Methodism?

    I'd be interested in getting your take on this.
     
  19. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    Hi Michael

    For Anglicans, it is tied up with the concept of Apostolic Succession - that the bishops, as successors of the Apostles, continued the pattern of Apostolic teaching after the last of the Apostles had departed. Therefore a bishop is much more than a mere 'office' but there is a charism of leadership attached to his ministry.
     
  20. Michael Wrenn

    Michael Wrenn New Member

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    Yes, I knew that it was tied to apostolic succession, but I wondered if there was any other reason to see it as a third order of ministry. But I appreciate your answering my post.
     
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