Why I'm no longer a Calvinist:

Thank you Van for clarifying the issue, but I don't believe we share any disagreement, at least none I could discern from your post.

While certainly there were non-jewish believers who would have been reconciled according to their faith, I believe Paul typically uses the term (at least in the context of Romans 9-11) to refer to Jews, like himself, who were chosen from Israel for the "noble purpose" while the rest of Israel was chosen for more common means (hardened in their already rebellious condition). Out of the "same lump" (Israel) God molds different vessels:

Those like Paul: for a noble purpose such as apostleship

Other Pharisees: for remaining hardened in rebellion so as to crucify Christ, allow room for the Gentiles to be ingrafted and then to be provoked.

The third group is the Gentiles who are being grafted in (Rm 11) and are willing to hear (Acts 28:28).

Is that more clear about my view of the Remnant of Israel?

 

But, for Paul to refer to his being "set aside from birth," as an example, when defending his authority suggests that such a characteristic is unique to him and not common to all believers. So too with regard to his being individually picked and effectually drawn. To suggest these are common attributes for all believers would seem to diminish his authority in that the individual believers could rightly respond saying, "So what, Paul? We are all set aside from birth, individually selected and effectually called, what makes you think you are special? We all have similar testimonies. Who is to say what you think is any more authoritative than what we think?"

But in all the passages regarding the hardening of Israel (Mark 4; Matt. 13; Acts 28:21-28; John 12:39-41; Rom 9-11; etc) there is the CLEAR distinction between those who have "become hardened" as ones who cannot "see, hear, understand and repent," and even the distinction showing "otherwise they might have" done so. In fact, Paul in Acts 28:28 goes as far as to point out that the Gentiles, unlike the hardened Jews, "will listen." Total Depravity teaches these abilities aren't present from birth making such passages meaningless.

The problem with this answer is that it is NOT the reason given by the scripture. The reason the gospel truth is hidden in parables is "lest they see, hear and believe it so as to repent." God wants to keep them in the dark for a period of time and if born totally depraved this would be accomplished by simply not regenerating them.

Since the gospel is the "power of God unto Salvation" it had to remain hidden until the proper time. The time in which ALL MEN would be drawn to HIM. (John 12:32)

Tools typically are used to accomplish a specific purpose. What purpose does the tool of envy serve? You say it is to "stimulate them to gospel exposure," but what does that even mean? Only the work of effectual regeneration makes men capable of receiving the gospel, so what possible work is really being accomplish by the means of envy? Isn't it a provoker of man's will, so as to persuade and change their wills?

Actually they are quite different. A Calvinist would have a reasoned and logical answer for this question, but to my question regarding why God might choose to provoke the will to envy they resort to red herrings? Or say ambiguous things like, "it is used to stimulate them to gospel exposure."

I'm not sure how that negates my point???

But, to the Jews of that day certainly you know of their destain for the idea that Gentiles were being invited to enter Covenant with "THEIR" God...the God of THEIR forefathers. Even the Jewish believers were trying to force the Gentile believer to convert to Judaism in order to be Christians. Plus, do a search on "mystery" in the NT and you will clearly see that this mystery has everything to do with God's choice to bring salvation to nations other than Israel. Surely, you don't deny this, do you?

 

That is a false accusation clearly rebutted by a simple observation of my many posts and various scriptural references. Plus, dismissing a chapter of scripture and the answer it presents with regard to understanding Paul's intent in Ephesian 4 is not a sound argument. You must explain WHY Paul's response in Romans 11 is not related, if that is what you believe, or show how my argument based on Romans 11 (and other texts) isn't sound and for what reasons. Just to dismiss it as being the basis of my "whole argument" is not an argument itself, just a means to dismiss something you don't wish to answer.

I've never denied the darkness and hardness of Gentiles, I've only attempted to demonstrate the difference in the historical context by which the Jews AT THIS TIME IN HISTORY have "experienced a hardening in part until the full number of the Gentiles has come in..." (Rom 11:25) Unlike the Gentiles who "will listen." (Acts 28:28) Yes, the Gentiles were ONCE bound over in their own darkness (not privy to God's prophets and scriptures), but now the Jews are being bound over to darkness (hardened hearts). WHY? So that ALL might be shown MERCY! (Rom 11:32)

 

Look forward to that.

I know, and as I explained I believe Paul's quote answered your question regarding Eph. 4.

I don't typically use that terminology. In the OT the Gentiles were privy to what you might call "common grace" by which the nature of God is revealed through nature and conscience (i.e. Rom 1), while Jews were privy to more "special revelation" in the revelation of prophets and scriptures, etc. Neither Jew or Gentiles were righteous according to the law..."no one was righteous, no not one." "All have sinned and fallen short." But now a RIGHTEOUSNESS APART FROM THE LAW is being revealed to which the law and prophets testified...a righteousness which comes by grace through faith. And according to this righteousness there are some who have been credited as "righteous" due to their faith. Jews, like Abraham, and non-Jews such as Rahab were declared righteousness, not by the measure keeping the law, but by faith.

BOTH groups were bound over to disobedience (both fell short of keeping the law) so that God might show mercy to them all (by righteousness of Grace through faith). AT this time in history, Israel is being blinded from the special revelation of the apostles (the gospel), while it is being taken to the Gentiles. That is the point Paul is making in Romans 11 and the other passages I've pointed out.

Did you not see Acts 28 that I also referenced in that same quote? How about Mark 4, Matt 13, & John 12 that I referenced in others posts?

 

Agreed, so for a Calvinist to refer to the uniqueness of his being set apart in such a manner as proof that all men are thusly set apart is unfounded. In other words, proof that God effectually calls and individually appoints his messenger doesn't prove that he effectually calls and individually appoints their audiences. For example, proving Jonah was effectually made to preach in Nineveh is not proof that individuals in Nineveh were effectually made to believe his message.

My argument has nothing to do with either of those points. There is a big difference in God commanding all believers to spread the good news, and God individually selecting and effectually calling his inspired apostles.

So when the scripture says, "For this people's heart has become calloused; they hardly hear with their ears, and they have closed their eyes. Otherwise they might see with their eyes, hear with their ears, understand with their hearts and turn, and I would heal them.' You take Paul to mean that they might have only intellectual believed like the demons do? If that is the case why does he say, "and I would heal them?" Surely he wouldn't heal someone who is doing what you call a "dead blasphemous work." Can you explain that?

That begs the question because it presumes a point up for debate... a point you might know as, "irresistible grace." The gospel is the GRACIOUS means God has chosen to draw all men, but men can resist or decline its appeal to be reconciled to God, thus it would NOT necessarily make all men believe it.

Explain what that means. Give an example of how that works. How does envy expose the gospel? Doesn't preaching or reading the scripture "expose" the gospel? What role does envy play in that process if not to provoke man's will?

Doesn't it make more sense to understand this as what it obviously means, which is that the Jews will see how Christ changes the lives of the Gentiles and they will see how much better they live life and the joy they have and grow envious of what they have, thus causing them to reexamine their own lives and possibly change their minds?

Did you do a search on the "mystery" of the gospel? What is that mystery?

 

What specifically have I stated that presumes the question up for debate, since my entire post was a list of questions to be considered and discussed? Your accusation is unfounded.

 

Those who have grown hardened are hardened, sure, but they are not being judicially hardened by God (i.e. sent a spirit of stupor, etc) as was the case with Israel in that day.

Self-hardening is when we choose to rebel of our own free will thus causing our hearts to grow calloused to the truth of God over a period of time (God permits this, but doesn't actively cause it or do it himself.) Judicial Hardening is the direct work of God by which he blinds an already rebellious person from the truth so as to seal them in their already rebellious state in order to accomplish good through their rebellion (i.e. Pharaoh/Israel).

So, Pharaoh was a self-hardened rebellious person prior to Moses ever showing up on the scene. He didn't want to let his slave labor go and he certainly didn't honor God. God did NOT have to MAKE him rebellious, he just chose to be. However, God wanted to display His power and make his name known and reveal truth through this rebellious man, so He blinded him in his rebellion in such a way that even convincing plagues would not convince him to change his mind. God actively HARDENED Pharaoh's heart to prevent him from seeing the obvious truth. He did this to ensure the Passover. This is a foreshadowing of what God does to Israel in Jesus' day in order to ensure the real Passover of the LAMB. The Jews were self-hardened and rebellious to a God holding out his hands to them (Rm 10:21) and desiring to save them but they were unwilling (Matt 23:37). When Jesus came, like Moses, to redeem the people, God hardened Israel and blinded them from the clear truth of the gospel in order to bring about the Passover.

See what I mean?

 

That presumes the word itself is not a sufficient work of the Holy Spirit. I believe as Jesus that his words are "spirit and life." I believe as Paul, that the gospel is "the power of God unto salvation." And that "faith cometh by hearing." And that the gospel is God's appeal sent to the whole world to request reconciliation.

Static word? Is that what you call the gospel? Revealing. No wonder you have such a low view of its abilities.