Why was Jesus baptized?

I think a better question to ask is: “What does the baptism of Jesus mean?”

As a newly illumed Orthodox Christian, from an Orthodox perspective; I tend to look at the Jordon River as the key. Joshua chapter 3 we see under Joshua’s leadership, the people of Israel cross the Jordon into the Promised Land. The waters of the river, just as the waters of the Red Sea stood for the ancient forces of chaos and death. The people were protected from the Jordon River by the Word of God, the stone tablets in the Ark of the Covenant.

Jesus’ baptism tells us how Jesus, the Word of God made flesh, leads the way through chaos and death (the Cross) to bring His people to the promised land, the Kingdom of God, which He preaches soon after. Jesus doesn’t need to be baptized for His own benefit, as John points out. Jesus’ baptism shows us that Jesus is a new Joshua (both names are from the Hebrew y’shua, “God saves”) who’s not merely a man, but also the Word of God who leads and protects His follows as they pass through death into the new Promised Land, the Kingdom of God.

ICXC NIKA
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The reason Jesus was baptized:

Matthew 3:14-15 But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

 

All the righteousness of the law was fulfilled in Jesus Christ. He needed no repentance from sin, as did those who came to John. He was sinless. He needed no salvation. He came to save others. All the law was fulfilled in Him. We are made righteous by Him.

 

1Pe 2:21For even hereunto were ye called: because Christ also suffered for us, leaving us an example, that ye should follow his steps:

Mat 3:15And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer [it to be so] now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

This is the scriptual reason.

The example He left us was not dying on the cross, for that is not required of us.

BBob,

 

I'm not complete in my understanding of this but in Israel, part of the process of becoming a high priest involves a ritualistic 'initiation'. There is the ritual bath and annointing.

Jesus is our high priest.

In one sense, the baptism of Jesus was his ritual bath and public annointing fullfilling the sacramental requirements for Jewish recognition: He continued in this role on his journey to the cross. There he laid down his life as the Lamb of God and shed his precious blood. When he rose, he took his blood to the throne in heaven and sprinkled it before the mercy seat before taking his seat at the right hand of the Father.


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This Sunday, my pastor preached on the significance of baptism: It is not necessary for one to be saved, but it is an essential act of obedience and identification for living the Christian life and service for Christ. He explained that by baptism Christ identified with us, and by baptism we identify with him.

 

It is important to remember what John's baptism was. It was a call for the Jews to repent. The Jews turned their back on God and John was calling them back. Too often people think repenting means to stop sinning when in fact it is a word meaning to turn or change direction.

One could say, "but Jesus didn't need to repent" and that is true. But not all the Jews needed to repent for we are told that there has always been a remnant following God. My guess is that even this remnant joined in and were baptized by John. Jesus was validating John's call to repent by partaking in it. This call was prophesied about for many years and Jesus supported it by taking part in it.

Look at the following verses:

Luke 7:29 And all the people that heard [him], and the publicans, justified God, being baptized with the baptism of John.
Luke 7:30 But the Pharisees and lawyers rejected the counsel of God against themselves, being not baptized of him.

God being justified. This is an opportunity to go off on a tangent, but I won't. Those that partook of John's baptism justified God. Jesus joined them in showing that God was correct in calling the Jews back to Him

 

John 1:
29The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.

30This is he of whom I said, After me cometh a man which is preferred before me: for he was before me.

31And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water.
32And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him.

33And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost.

34And I saw, and bare record that this is the Son of God.

Pretty simple and straight forward huh?

 

Because the dove was tired of flying since the time of Noah.

 

The bigger question, why ask a question Jesus already answered Himself?

 

Jesus was baptized because He always followed the Law. He was the perfect Jew.


Mat 3:14 And John tried to prevent Him, saying, "I need to be baptized by You, and are You coming to me?"
Mat 3:15 But Jesus answered and said to him, "Permit it to be so now, for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness." Then he allowed Him.

"Us", meaning the Jews.

 

Jews didn't fulfill all righteous, that is why Jesus came. The "us" is two men sent of God, John who came to make ready a prepared people for the coming of the Lord and the Lord Himself, both filled with the Holy Ghost.

I like to say an "old Baptist Preacher and the Lord. Makes a good pair don't you think???

BBob,

 

I hadn't thought of that. You are probably right. :thumbs:

 

Christ fulfilled all righteousness; not John. The only part John played was an instrument of God in the actual baptizing. The baptism itself was a sign of the beginning of the ministry of Jesus in whom all righteousness would and is fulfilled. The law is fulfilled in him and would be completel fulfilled in him when it would be nailed to the cross.

If John had any real part in it then it would give the picture that salvation is by works, a heresy. Righteousness comes by Christ alone.

 

I guess Jesus messed up when he said "us", to a man filled with the Holy Ghost before he was ever born and also a man "sent of God".

Mat 3:15And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer [it to be so] now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

We are back to "when was John saved", seems to me.

"us"

You said it all here.

What about this scripture also DHK????
Rom 8:4That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

You fail to take in to account that John was doing the bidding of the Holy Ghost, or in other words the bidding of Jesus, or the bidding of God. What John did was not of himself, but was of God.

BBob,

 

How about Scripture out of context Bob!
The "us" in Romans 8 certainly doesn't refer to John the Baptist does it? He was killed long before that time.

Romans was written post-cross. OUR righteousness is in Jesus Christ, who paid the penalty of our sin at the cross. The only way that the righteousness of the law can be fulifilled in us, is that it was fulfilled in Christ first when he nailed it to the cross. That had not taken place during the lifetime of John.

 

No , but the righteousness is righteousness.

I still say, you don't take the action of John, as being the fulfillment of an action of God. I do.

God started this by preparing John the Baptist and God finished it by the baptism to introduce His Son to the World. "This is My Beloved Son, in Whom I am well pleased". John the Baptist death did not do anything for righteous, but he was a part of the beginning of the ministry and then death of Christ.

You know anyone else that was filled with the Holy Ghost from birth??? John was a man "sent" of God.

Bbob,