Why was Jesus baptized?

So was Jeremiah.

Jeremiah 1:5 Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee; and before thou camest forth out of the womb I sanctified thee, and I ordained thee a prophet unto the nations.

Jeremiah 1:7 But the LORD said unto me, Say not, I am a child: for thou shalt go to all that I shall send thee, and whatsoever I command thee thou shalt speak.

 

So God was working through Jeremiah.

Same as John the Baptist.

BBob,

 

But righteousness was fulfilled in Christ, not in Jeremiah; not in John the Baptist.

 

DHK, why did Jesus say:

Mat 3:15 But Jesus answered and said to him, "Permit it to be so now, for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness." Then he allowed Him.

Who is "us"? Why didn't He say "it is fitting for Me to fulfill all righteousness"?

 

Well, Christ told John it becometh "us" to fulfill all righteousness. Jesus even includes us preachers in His work. Why would you want to cut out John the Baptist from being a part of setting up the Grace covenant, when Jesus includes us in preacher, "how can they preach, except they be sent".

You are taking a position that the Lord would not take. "it becometh US to fulfill all righteousness".

Jesus used many setting up He way, John just being one of them.

I am not saying that we fulfill our own righteousness, but the righteousness of the Law is fulfilled in us. Of course if we have Christ. But this goes against your belief, for you do not believe we can keep the Moral Law. What do you think the scripture is saying when it says "the righteousness of the Law is fulfilled in us"????? The Law is not sin, its the breaking of the Law that is sin. And I do mean the Ten Commandments, before you bring up all those others, of the Mosaic Law of the washing of the pots and pans. Seems we been here before. Strange how one scripture will lead us right back where we been....


Is this a righteousness act????

When I baptize a believer, is that a "righteous" act??

BBob,

 

1. Remember that this is pre-cross and Christ had not yet died.
2. The word us, if used in the way that you are suggesting, also suggests that John is cooperating in salvation. Therefore salvation is by works and not by grace through faith.
3. The word "us" simply refers to the act of baptism itself. Christ was speaking to John. John had to baptize Jesus. John was involved in the act of baptizing. The act of baptizing or the water being used had no supernatural value or magic quality. John was a man used of God to baptize Jesus. He was not one that imparted righteousness to Christ. That would be heresy.

The righteousness of the law (as is all righteousness) is fulfilled in Jesus Christ, and in Him alone. Without Christ there is no righteousness. He is our righteousness.

 

Not so fast here. All four gospels relate that as soon as they came up out of the water the Spirit of God descended on Jesus like a dove. Surely this occurred as a result of the baptism, or it was an extraordinary coincidence.

 

Looking over ones other shoulder, this tends to suggest that the only way that salvation can be by grace is if we hate and resist grace initially to the point that we are absolutely defiant when approached by it. It also suggests that grace will not work unless it is resisted tooth and nail. Silly huh?

Truth is, whither we resist, or seek and acquires, in either instance, salvation is by grace. Why is this true? Well, it is because our submission does not save us (grace does); neither does our resistance save us, it is still Grace. If we cooperate, salvation is still by grace.
John is cooperating.... As opposed to John is resisting....

 

I'm not talking about salvation. The question was "why was Jesus baptized?" He was baptized because "all righteousness must be fulfilled in us".
You disagreed with mine and Bro. Bob's interpretation of "us". My question to you was "who is '"us'"? I said it was the Jews, Bob said it was John the baptist.
The point is, Jesus was baptized because He followed the Law completely. I am still of the mind that He meant the Jews, because that is who He came to, but Bro. Bob says it's John the baptist. He could be right. But Jesus used the word "us" to mean Himself and someone other than Himself. Salvation comes from the Jews.

 

I would like to suggest that we do something really silly and see what happens. Why was Jesus baptized? Why not let's just allow the bible to answer, no conjectures, no theories, absent whenever possible man falliable exegesis: So what does the bible say?

John 1:31-33
31And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water.

32And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him.

33And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost.

Can it really be that simple

 

Yes. It is quite simple. Jesus fulfilled all righteous by being totally obedient. That is why He was baptized just as other Jews were. He was identified as the Messiah during His baptism, so that John would know He was the Son of God and was beginning His ministry. Simple.

 

Now we cooking with butter :thumbs:

 

Not just anyone could of baptized Jesus. John was sent of God to do so.

BBob,

 

Could it be that sense John was a Priest after Aaron that the baptism of Jesus was symbolic of the passing of the old Levitical order to the new eternal Priesthood of Christ?

Thus came the voice of God from Heaven and the Holy Spirit descending upon Him in the form of a dove, "This is My Son, in whom I am well pleased" as if in approval of the old priesthood represented in John is cut off and the new Priesthood would be eternal in Christ. Christ being the first to be baptized into the New Covenant as Head Priest forever. I believe Hebrews has a thing to say about it.

And again in Hebrews 5:1-14

:godisgood:

 

Real butter, not margerine...:thumbs:

 

It is important to remember what John's baptism was. It was a call for the Jews to repent. The Jews turned their back on God and John was calling them back. Too often people think repenting means to stop sinning when in fact it is a word meaning to turn or change direction.

One could say, "but Jesus didn't need to repent" and that is true. But not all the Jews needed to repent for we are told that there has always been a remnant following God. My guess is that even this remnant joined in and were baptized by John. Jesus was validating John's call to repent by partaking in it. This call was prophesied about for many years and Jesus supported it by taking part in it.

Look at the following verses:

Luke 7:29 And all the people that heard [him], and the publicans, justified God, being baptized with the baptism of John.
Luke 7:30 But the Pharisees and lawyers rejected the counsel of God against themselves, being not baptized of him.

God being justified. This is an opportunity to go off on a tangent, but I won't. Those that partook of John's baptism justified God. Jesus joined them in showing that God was correct in calling the Jews back to Him

 

Jesus' being baptized of John is the death of the old Levitical priestly order and the beginning of the new eternally Righteous High Priesthood of Christ. See Hebrews chapter 5.

 

AmyG:
"The question was "why was Jesus baptized?" He was baptized because "all righteousness must be fulfilled in us"."

GE:
You put this in quotation marks; is everything you have put in quotation marks, in there?

What is "all righteousness", and what is "must be fulfilled"?

We have NO righteousness 'in us'; that's for absolutely sure! Even less is righteousness fulfilled in us.

What aspect of your confident statement is left that is true? NOTHING!