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Why Would God extend grace towards those whom he Knows Will reject Jesus still?

Discussion in 'Calvinism & Arminianism Debate' started by Yeshua1, Jan 18, 2014.

  1. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Mar 19, 2012
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    Woukldn't that make little sense, to hvae God appying grace towards all sinners, yet know most of them will rejecy jesus and stay lost in their sins anyways?

    He desires to save all, jesus died for all, per Arminian, doesn't this make God sort of impotent to getting His will accomplished?
  2. pinoybaptist

    pinoybaptist Active Member
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    Mar 17, 2002
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    This is a bit in agreement with my original question or premise in the thread "A Very Interesting God" which has now been closed.

    However, a little correction, if you will, with all due respects.
    God did not apply grace to ALL sinners without distinction.
    He applied grace to those sinners whom He foreknew from eternity past and whose names are in His book, and to them only.
    In fact, God does not "extend" grace, for, in the English language, if I am not mistaken, to extend something is to apply or offer, or to stretch out, as in an offer, or a handshake, both of which leaves the option of being rejected.
    Noah found grace IN the eyes of the Lord (Genesis 6:8) is the scripture where the word grace was first mentioned, and it didn't say God extended grace to Noah.

    But then, again, that is the very essence of human religion.
    A god whose will is subservient to that of the supposed worshipper.
  3. prophet

    prophet Active Member
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    May 8, 2010
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    Psalm 117
    1 O praise the Lord, all ye nations:
    praise him, all ye people.
    2 For his merciful kindness is great toward us:
    and the truth of the Lord endureth for ever.
    Praise ye the Lord.

    Any? 's