Featured A pastor’s qualifications:

The Bible in its entirety is written for all "true believers"! God through the Apostle Paul says so!

 

What are you talking about "no"? You mean he changed a meaning of a verse or word just for OR living in the 21st century? Ridiculous!

 

That is an asinine statement. I said:

To prove I am correct I will help you out a little:

2Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

If you don't believe the above you are denying Scripture. But that is the decision only you can make.

 

1. We both believe the Bible and that the Bible is inspired. Thus the above statement is irrelevant.
2. Scripture is interpreted in light of its context.
3. Scripture cannot be interpreted without consideration of its historical context. In this case one must study what were the customs and culture of the Jewish marriages of that time, and why were divorces given, and why were they permitted. If this is not studied out then one is bound to come to a false conclusion.
4. One cannot read a western culture situation into a first century Jewish culture situation and assume they will arrive at the same conclusion.

There is a matter of hermeneutics. You seem to avoid some basic principles here.

 

Scripture properly understood is never irrelevant.

Context, context, context, Chapter, Book, Bible. That is context, something pre-trib-dispensationalists often ignore.

Without doubt pre-trib-dispensationalists use this hermeneutic when interpretation Revelation.

I could make the same argument about Paul's qualifications for a bishop, elder, deacon, but I would be wrong, or the passage from Genesis regarding marriage, but I would be wrong, just as you are in understanding what Jesus Christ is teaching.

Frankly I depend on the Holy Spirit. Jesus Christ told us: Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. [John 16:13]

 

Joseph was going to put her away/divorce her when he found out she was pregnant. I can only imagine how he felt when he found this out. But an angel told him what happened and he didn't go through it. He could have lawfully put her away/divorced her if she had played the harlot.

Now, could Joseph have taken another women for a wife if he had put her away/divorced her?

 

Did he operate under the assumption that she had fotnicated with another man?

 

You tell me. If you are engaged to be married in three weeks. Two weeks before the marriage you find out that your fiancee had an affair with your best man. would you still marry her, or would you call off the wedding and split up (divorce)?
That is what Joseph was going to do before the angel explained to him what was going on--a supernatural event from the Lord.

If your engagement breaks up of course you can "remarry" for you were never married in the first place.
However we don't live in the first century in Jewish culture where the betrothal system is in place; and marriage is taken much more seriously. When those facts are consistently ignored the passages in question will never make proper sense or be interpreted correctly.

 

We operate under the assumption that that is what Joseph thought, for indeed he did think that she had committed fornication. Therefore an angel came to explain to him that this was not fornication.

In the ESV:
Mat 1:18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ took place in this way. When his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be with child from the Holy Spirit.
Mat 1:19 And her husband Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to put her to shame, resolved to divorce her quietly.
Mat 1:20 But as he considered these things, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, "Joseph, son of David, do not fear to take Mary as your wife, for that which is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit.

Some things had to be explained.

 

Jesus used the word "fornication," and it was used three times in the book of Matthew which was written to a Jewish audience.
Fornication's primary meaning is "sex before marriage."
Therefore, following the example of Mary and Joseph, the "divorce" would have taken before the "marriage" for that is what fornication is. If it was for the cause of adultery Jesus would have used that word, but he didn't.

 

I found these three greek words used for 'fornication' using Strong's. I know some don't like Strong's, but I am far from a greek scholar, so it's the best I can use...

1608. ekporneuo ek-porn-yoo'-o from 1537 and 4203; to be utterly unchaste:--give self over to fornication.

4202. porneia por-ni'-ah from 4203; harlotry (including adultery and incest); figuratively, idolatry:--fornication.

4203. porneuo porn-yoo'-o from 4204; to act the harlot, i.e. (literally) indulge unlawful lust (of either sex), or (figuratively) practise idolatry:--commit (fornication).

And I found this in www.blueletterbible.com.....

Porneia G4202

--illicit sexual intercourse
--adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals etc.
--sexual intercourse with close relatives; Lev. 18
--sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman; Mk. 10:11,12
--metaph. the worship of idols
--of the defilement of idolatry, as incurred by eating the sacrifices offered to idols

So this word usage covers a myriad of sexual immoralities....

 

moicheuō G3431

--to commit adultery
--to be an adulterer
--to commit adultery with, have unlawful intercourse with another's wife
--of the wife: to suffer adultery, be debauched
--A Hebrew idiom, the word is used of those who at a woman's solicitation are drawn away to idolatry, i.e. to the eating of things sacrificed to idols

It appears that committing fornication is intercourse before marriage, whereas adultery would be intercourse before marriage. That's why Joseph was privately desiring to put her away/break off the engagement...

 

Yessir he did...

 

Let's quote Matthew 19:9 and leave a certain portion out...

Matthew19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

You leave that portion out, it turns that verse upon it's head....

 

I believe it is in the same book that talks about the pre-trib-removal of the church!

 

From www.godvine.com....

 

From the same site....

 

Poole's commentary....

 

I see what your problem is DHK. You have bought into that nonsense that Matthew was written specifically for the Jews. Tells us all, what about the following Verse, is it for the Jews only?

Matthew 19:6. Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.