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In a recently closed thread, it was asserted that the "double accusative construction" of 2 Corinthians 5:21 precluded the verb "epoiesen" to be translated as meaning "He treated."
In this Greek construction the verb takes two direct objects, a Person and a thing. The person is affected, and the thing is effected. So "the One knowing no sin" is the person affected, and "sin" is the thing effected (to be sin.)
So He treated the One knowing no sin to be sin reflects the grammatical form...
"And the God of peace will crush Satan under your feet shortly. The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you. Amen." Rom.16:20
1. Written around AD 55 by an inspired apostle.
2. Written to actual people in the 1st century. ("your")
3. "Shortly" ("en tachei") means "soon", "without delay".
So...when did this happen?
Was he inspirationally mistaken?
Was he lying to us to keep Christians on their eschatological toes?
When did Satan get "crushed" "shortly" after AD 55?
Let's see what parts of the Olivet Discourse have come to pass...
Matt. 24: 2 And Jesus said to them, “Do you not see all these things? Assuredly, I say to you, not one stone shall be left here upon another, that shall not be thrown down.”
This came to pass literally in 70 AD. The Romans pulled the temple apart, believing there was gold concealed between its stones.
Matt. 24:4 And Jesus answered and said to them: “Take heed that no one deceives you. 5 For many...
Watching a rerun of "Good Times"
The grandfather came to visit, however, he also brought his girlfriend.
It was their intention to share a room that night.
However, Florida (Mom) being the good Christian woman she is -
would not allow that in her home.
Gram pa said the reason they did not get married was because
both of their Social Securities would be cut.
Eventually, mom caved and allowed them to share a bedroom.
Open for discussion
Several pre-1611 English Bibles and many post-1611 English Bibles clearly, precisely, and accurately identify Jesus Christ as "our God and Saviour" at 2 Peter 1:1. William Tyndale in 1534, Miles Coverdale in 1535, and John Rogers in 1537 translated the last part of this verse as "righteousness that cometh of our God and Saviour Jesus Christ." In his 1538 Latin-English New Testament, Miles Coverdale rendered it “righteousness of our God and Saviour Jesus Christ.” The 1539 Great Bible, 1557...
While I am a Baptist, I'm starting this thread here, so non-Baptist brethren may chip in as well...
On a Facebook page, I'm dialoguing with some preterists who also believe one is not saved til one is baptized. When I cited Jesus' saving the thief on the cross who couldn't be baptized, they claimed it was because the Old Covenant was still in effect!(Never mind that Jesus introduced the New Covenant at the "Last Supper"!)
Another example is that of Zacchaeus. When Jesus saved him He...
On another thread a member came to a rather interesting conclusion, one that I personally had not considered previously. It is a conclusion that I believe can be rather quickly dismissed, but since a couple of members agreed with the posting I thought it worth exploring a little.
In the thread Christ made Sin? @Martin Marprelate (with the approval of @percho and winning approval of @SovereignGrace ) compared Christ as being lifted up to Satan in Revelation 12:3 and suggested that Scripture...
(Thomas Nelson is known for its New King James translation)
Jury Awards $15 Million in Lawsuit Against Thomas Nelson
U.S. District Court for the Middle District of Tennessee....On January 18, a jury awarded EPAC $3 million in breach of contract damages, $60,000 in fraudulent concealment damages, and $12 million in punitive damages.