Featured Prove it wrong: There is not one verse about predestination to salvation

This thread was about showing a verse where a lost man is predestinated unto salvation.
No such verse has been put forward by anyone, as partly illustrated by the interminable posts.
We've seen a couple of verses where believers are predestinated to a resurrection body like Christ's and to an inheritance. That's all.
The thread wasn't about foreknowledge, or election. It was about one verse.
Now someone can say: "there is no such verse, but I still believe the doctrine because I derive it from xyz" as I think only one person did, and that's fine.
But as a sheer, cold, hard, clinical fact: there is no verse where a lost man is predestinated unto salvation.

 

Nice personal definition there.

 

A) We all agree that the ultimate source of our knowledge is the book itself, not a school.
Did the fishermen God called graduate from the reputable schools of the Pharisees and Sadducees?
B) Maybe you haven't been exposed to teachings beyond a small circle. I'm certainly not the only one who teaches exactly what the verses say - that in every case it's a saved man who gets predestinated, according to the foreknowledge of God, to obtain a resurrection body like Christ's and to an inheritance - without coming at them with a pre-packaged theology and forcing them into that mold.
C) Still no one has disproved the OP cross-references with context, and counter and defining cross-references.

 

I'm pretty sure I didn't author the verses.

 

Therefore they must still be addressed, even if I'm the one who typed them.
We must let the Bible define its own terms and Paul taught us in 1Corinthians 2 and Isaiah taught us in Isaiah 28 to do this by comparing scriptures with scriptures.
You can disagree, and show your own defining cross-references, and that's good.
But much of the disagreement here stems from pre-packaged theology, a scornful, downward looking attitude, and recently, insults.

 

Yours was one of the best replies because it did a good work of cross-referencing. But I did answer it.

 

The post was long and that's ok but I'll try to focus.
We define terms from the words of God, the way God defines them. Also, as explained, the resurrection from the dead is spoken of as a birth in the verses I presented earlier.
No one disputes that we are sons now, as stated in Galatians 4. That's because we were born again spiritually the day we believed and thus became sons of God, but only spiritually. But that only covers our souls and spirits, not our bodies. In Romans, Paul addresses that aspect. Our bodies get adopted at the resurrection, not at salvation. That's what Paul was talking about in the passages in question, as was demonstrated by the way he himself defined it: waiting for the adoption, to wit, the redemption of our body (Rom.8:23).
1Jn 3:2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God [that’s Galatians 4, spiritually], and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is [That’s Romans 8, physically, at the resurrection].
It's in reference to that bodily adoption at the resurrection that he mentions predestination. As he also says, if you're waiting for something, then it hasn't happened yet, but it will happen, because we got predestinated unto that bodily adoption/resurrection the day we got saved, according to the foreknowledge of God.

 

Thank you brother. I wish you, and all here, the same

 

That many Bible words have more than one connotation is certain. But if you refer back to the OP cross-references, Paul speaks of a physical conforming to the physical image of the risen Christ.
the form of the fourth is like the Son of God (Dan.3:25) the Son of God had a form even before his incarnation, as well as after; Mar 16:12 After that he appeared in another form unto two of them, as they walked, and went into the country. The use of form in a post-resurrection context, where Christ rose and appeared bodily to the disciples, proves that form here also refers to the physical shape of the Son of God. This will reveal that the meaning of: Rom 8:29 For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed [meaning: to take the form of] to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren refers primarily to a physical conformity, not a spiritual one, as is often taught. The image is physical, not spiritual, as is clear from: 1Co 15:49 And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly.
See also: 1Jn 3:2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is. And Php 3:20 For our conversation is in heaven; from whence also we look for the Saviour, the Lord Jesus Christ: Php 3:21 Who shall change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body, according to the working whereby he is able even to subdue all things unto himself.