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Why do you use the Bible translation you use?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by 37818, Dec 27, 2021.

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  1. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    They pretty much follow one of two readings in certain variants. Jeremiah 34:16. "he" or "ye." "Ye" is the correct reading. The first edition of the NKJV had the wrong reading by accedent. They had checked the reading against the incorrect KJV and changed "you" to "he."
    And the current NKJV missed some KJV readings and omited them in the NT. One I have in mind, Luke 1:35, "of you" was omited. The TR they used omited it.
     
    #141 37818, Dec 31, 2021
  2. Squire Robertsson

    Squire Robertsson Administrator
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    Six Hour Warning
    This thread will be closed sometime after 6:40 PM Pacific.
     
    #142 Squire Robertsson, Dec 31, 2021
  3. RipponRedeaux

    RipponRedeaux Well-Known Member

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    Did you know that six editions of the TR lack the Comma Johanneum?
    Matthew's Bible of 1537 places it in brackets with a smaller fount.

    Info courtesy of Elijah Hixson of the Evangelical Textual Criticism blog.
     
    #143 RipponRedeaux, Dec 31, 2021
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  4. Conan

    Conan Well-Known Member

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    So did Tyndale and Coverdale. Use brackets that is ( )
     
    #144 Conan, Dec 31, 2021
  5. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    "(For there are thre which beare recorde in heauen, the father, the worde, and the holye Ghoste. And these thre are one.) For there are thre, whiche beare recorde (in earth) the spyrite and water, and bloude, and these thre are one."

    The type is not the same as used by Matthew's Bible
     
    #145 37818, Dec 31, 2021
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  6. Conan

    Conan Well-Known Member

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    Do you know what TR they used? A Stephanus edition I'm guessing?
     
    #146 Conan, Dec 31, 2021
  7. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    My electronic TR shows Stephanus to have εκ σου as an exception to the TR not having the reading. Also my printed TR interlinar which omits it shows Lachmann, 1842-1850 to include the reading. The KJV on the margin of course has the "of thee."

    So this would explain why the NKJV translation omits it without any note. Which should not have been omited and to have a note, M, NU omits "of you"
     
    #147 37818, Dec 31, 2021
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  8. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    While looking over what they used to work on the translation, it looks like a fairly balanced blend of sources.

    What are your thoughts concerning the sources?
     
    #148 agedman, Dec 31, 2021
  9. Conan

    Conan Well-Known Member

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    Luke 1:35. Omit "of thee" after "born." S E G Lm T Tr A W WH NA HF versus B Lt, AV.

    Collation of Received text readings

    Beza is the source for the words in the KJV.
     
    #149 Conan, Dec 31, 2021
  10. RipponRedeaux

    RipponRedeaux Well-Known Member

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    To answer the OP, I use the NIV because it accomplishes many things in one package. It is accurate, it's familiar after being around for almost half a century, it's written in clear, natural sounding English, it preaches and teaches well, and the words are 95% the same as the 1984 edition--just not in the same order. It is indeed international in scope. Off-hand I don't know what percentage of its users are non-native speakers of English. But it would be a considerable number. The text is understandable to a wider audience therefore.
    It's the all-round English Bible translation. It has its warts, just like each and every Bible translation. It will probably be updated later this decade; after being in circulation for nearly 15 years. But I like a number of other translations which I consult regularly. Many of my past threads (primarily when I went by "Rippon.") feature comparisons.

    Everyone has their favorite Bible translation. The NIV is mine.
     
    #150 RipponRedeaux, Dec 31, 2021
  11. Squire Robertsson

    Squire Robertsson Administrator
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    This thread is closed.
     
    #151 Squire Robertsson, Dec 31, 2021
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