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Female RC Priests

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by DHK, Jul 26, 2005.

  1. D28guy

    D28guy New Member

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    Matt Black,

    Since your post is right under mine I assume you were referring to me when you said...

    OK. Lets go back and quote me shall we?....

    I said...

    Did you notice that bolded word?

    Approximetly

    The last time I went through the new testament and looked at the dates believed to be when they were written, I saw various dates. Many were prior to 70AD, some were after 70AD, but not much.

    So, my statement was accurate...

    But the infinetly more important quote was my 2nd statement...the one you ignored in favor of a game of trivial pursuit...

    Grace and peace,

    Mike
     
  2. D28guy

    D28guy New Member

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    Matt Black,

    Heres a fully decent one...

    Sadly,

    Mike

    Click the link: Constantine/Catholicism/Paganism
     
  3. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    And which of these writers lived in the 4th century?

    Yours in Christ

    Matt
     
  4. D28guy

    D28guy New Member

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    More...this time quotes from the Catholic Digest magazine:

    Mike
     
  5. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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  6. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    A couple of points by way of come back.

    Yes, the early Church did have to contend with error mainly in the various forms of gnosticism, and you rightly allude to the gnostic writings there. But, (a) the Church expelled the gnostics (Irenaeus in particular was instrumental there) and (b) it is completely wrong to lump the Deuterocanonical OT books like Baruch and Susannah in with the gnostic writings: the former were included in the LXX Greek translation of the OT and used and regarded as inspired by both the Jews of the Diaspora and the early Christians; they were certainly not written by any apostle, false or otherwise, nor did anyone ever claim that they were.

    Secondly, Christians were 'doing' long before they were 'writing'. What I mean by that is that the Church was in existence prior even to the verbal rendering of most of the NT, still less its inscripturation. That's the origin of Tradition: what the Church was 'doing' and has always 'done'. That predates the NT Scriptures, and those Scriptures must be read alongside that Tradition.

    Lastly (three points not two!), I'm still waiting for evidence dating from the 4th century from you, Mike or indeed anyone else to confirm that (a) the Catholic Church came into being then and (b) the 'true churches/ Christians' continued to exist outwith that Catholic Church, plus what they taught, what they practised. where they were, etc.

    Matt
     
  7. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    They don't have to be gnostic to be either heretical or uninspired. It was obvious to the early beievers that these were not inspired books of the Bible, as they were not written by Apostle or even close acquaintances of them.
    You are wrong about their inclusion in the LXX. In fact that assertion is absurd. Some of the Apocryphal books were not even written until after the time of the death of Christ. The Septuagint was written and completed in about 250 B.C. There is not even one Apocryphal book that was written that early. It is absurd to claim that they were included in the LXX when they did not even exist at the time of the writing of the LXX. Even at the time of the writing of Jerome's Latin Vulgate, Jerome himself protested at the inclusion of the Apocrypha in the canon of Scripture. He knew they were spurious books. It wasn't until hundreds of years later that they crept into the Septuagint. So to say that they were included in the LXX is a frivilous and unfounded statement. The Jews who wrote the Septuagint, never, at any time accepted these books as inspired. Why would they allow them into their Scripture? They didn't.

    Secondly, Christians were 'doing' long before they were 'writing'. What I mean by that is that the Church was in existence prior even to the verbal rendering of most of the NT, still less its inscripturation. That's the origin of Tradition: what the Church was 'doing' and has always 'done'.[/qb][/quote]
    That is not the origin of Traditon. That may be the origin of gnostic writings, heresies, etc., It is also the origin of Scripture as Paul and the other Apostles wrote to different churches their epistles which eventually became inscripturated. That is not tradition. That was God's way of revealing to mankind his Word. Before that God used the spiritual gifts of revelatory knowledge and prophecy to reveal his Word to his people. When the Bible was completed in the end of the first century these gifts passed away (1Cor.13:8-13).
    What you are referring to are the Scripture.

    Even men like Cardinal Hosius claim that believers such as the Waldenses existed back to the time of the Apostles. We know that the Catholic Church started near the beginning of the fourth Century at the time of Constantine when Constantine officially made "Christendom" a state religion. At that time he paganized Christianity, and Christianized paganism. Many of the current idols that the Catholic Church has today entered into the Catholic Church at that time. They have their origins in pagan idolatry.
    DHK
     
  8. born again and again

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    Interesting word, "tradition." It's almost like quasi-fact. Not historical fact, but possibly based on some fact combined with some speculation. "Truth" is another very interesting word. It relates to objective fact as well as subjective belief (faith?). The problem arises when subjective belief does not coincide with objective fact. In that case it is truly a matter of faith.
     
  9. born again and again

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    This is the same type of thinking which had the Sun revolving around the Earth for a very long time, despite clear evidence to the contrary.
     
  10. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    Evidence, DHK, evidence! You and I both know that Cardinal Hosius did not live in the 4th century. What I'm after from you and Mike (and indeed anyone else) is some 4th or 5th century Christian writings (such as Eusebius) which support your ludicrous assertion that the Catholic Church came into being in the 4th century.

    Your assertion about the LXX not including the DCs is seriously absurd and flies in the face of authoritative scholarship. I'm afraid you've destroyed whatever credibility of your argument which you had here with that particular gem.
     
  11. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    For you to say this is ludicrous. Tell me. Do you know the actual dates that the Apocryphal books were written?
    Do you know the date when the LXX was written?
    Do you know who translated the LXX?
    Do you know that the Jews never accepted the Apocrypha?
     
  12. born again and again

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    Matt, isn't it true that Constantine called all the christian leaders together in the 4th century in an attempt to have a united christian religion and a single religion for Rome; to unite his authority under a common religious belief? Isn't that when the christian leaders decided which writings to place into the "New Testament"?
     
  13. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    DHK, the LXX, including the DCs, was compiled between the 3rd and 1st centuries BC by Jews. It was therefore in existence by the time of Christ and could not have been authored by an Apostle any more than the rest of the OT could have been; are you going to reject the rest of the OT because that wasn't "authored by an Apostle"?!

    The Jews accepted the LXX & DCs up until the 'Council' of Jamnia (actually more of a rabbinical school) after the destruction of the Second Temple in 70AD. Their reasons for rejection of it were twofold: (a) it wasn't written in Hebrew and they wanted to assert the primacy of Hebrew in their sacred texts as part of reestablishing as sense of Jewish identity and (b) crucially, the early Christians used it and they wanted to out some clear water between themselves and those sectarian minim .

    If the DCs were only admitted to the canon of the OT by the Catholic Council of Trent in 1546, then how come the Orthodox have them in their OT?

    Here's a handy neutral linkwhich tells you the facts about the LXX.

    Opinions differ about the value of Wikipedia, but THIS ARTICLE includes links to arguments relevant to this thread. In particular, the External Links to Newman and Stanley's articles might be worth some attention.

    The LXX is claimed, with justification, to be based on a 2nd century BC version of the OT. And there is no doubt that it was used by the NT authors - there are many cross-references in the NT to scriptures not found in the Masoretic OT.

    The counter-claim, that the LXX was not in all cases the best translation, is also explored in the articles, which also contain pro and anti arguments for the excluded books.

    I reckon you can take your pick. The arguments do not seem to me to be conclusive either way. To help others, here is the extract from Bob Stanley's article (Wikipedia cross refce) on the OT Deuterocanonicals about how the Council of Jamnia functioned.


    So Wisdom and 2 Maccabees are out, being Greek, Judith and Tobit are out because they are written in Aramaic


    I don't have any independent corroboration of Bob Stanley's argument. Looking at the way the Council of Jamnia worked, criteria 3 and 4 both look a little arbitrary to modern eyes.




    Born again and again, Constantine called one Ecumenical Church Council, that of Nicaea in 325. The issue there was not to unify "under a common religious belief" generally but to settle the dispute between the Catholic-Orthodox Trinitarian Christians on the one hand and the heretical Arians on the other. The issue wasn't settled properly until the Council of Constantinople in 381, some 44 years after Constantine's death. The NT canon was determined by the Councils of Rome, Carthage and Hippo in 382, 393 and 397, the last one being some 60 years after Constantine's death. So Constantine had absolutely nothing to do with the NT canon.

    [ August 24, 2005, 07:49 AM: Message edited by: Matt Black ]
     
  14. born again and again

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    So is it your position that Constantine did not desire to have one united Christian Church and one united religion for Rome? And I was only refering to the NT. Isn't it true that, prior to Constantine, different Christian leaders were using different writings to preach their beliefs and that they were brought together to vote (or somehow otherwise decide) on which books would be included in the NT? And isn't i true that none of the books now included in the NT were written prior to approximately 200 A.D.? Looks like the process started with Constantine, but did not finish until after his death.
     
  15. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    No. I'm not convinced that Constantine ever really understood what Christianity was about. What he was aware of was that there was a serious division between the Arian and Trinitarian parties which was causing civil unrest. He wanted to avoid the situation degenerating further into civil war and therefore wanted to reconcile the parties, although he didn't really understand the theological issues involved. That was his rationale behind the Council of Nicaea. Nicaea had absolutely nothing to do with the formation of the OT or the NT (as I said above, that happened several decades after Constantine's death) and had everything to do with Constantine trying to hold his newly-acquired empire together.
     
  16. born again and again

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    Exactly, I think you understood my point. Constantine's concerns were political, not religious. He really did not care what the Christians disagreed on, only that they resolve it. Thank you for pointing out that the Christians did not actually decide which writings to identify as "Scriptures" until several decades later.
     
  17. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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