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“What then was the Bible written for?”

Discussion in 'Calvinism & Arminianism Debate' started by KenH, Sep 22, 2021.

  1. KenH

    KenH Well-Known Member

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    “When I hear it said, “Such and such do not believe the doctrines of sovereign grace and substitution, but they love the Lord and are saved,” I wonder and ask, “What then was the Bible written for?”

    Is it no infallible expression of the mind of GOD? Is it no standard of Truth? Are we to believe what appeals to us and deny the rest? God forbid! God’s Word declares the oneness of Truth and condemns every departure from the Truth as a direct attack on God Himself!

    Do not tell me that a man’s heart is right with God when his head contains a creed of error and denies the Person and Work of the Redeemer.” - Horatius Bonar
     
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  2. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    If 2nd Timothy 3 versus 16 and 17 and eph.3: 9 -11
     
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  3. SGO

    SGO Well-Known Member

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    The word of our God stands for ever...
    Isaiah 40:8

    But aren't there people that say, "Yeah, but not in English."
     
  4. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Well, what did Jesus explain to the Devil? ". . . It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God."
     
  5. SGO

    SGO Well-Known Member

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    Yeah. In the originals only but not in translations.
     
  6. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Oh, so God's word is always made void by translation. Few things to note here. That reference is a double translation. Hebrew or Aramaic to Greek to English. That word translated God from the Hebrew being God by His Name. See Deuteronomy 8:3. And God's word is not limited to what is written, Psalms 19:4 per Romans 10:17-18.
     
  7. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    Romans 15:4.
     
  8. SGO

    SGO Well-Known Member

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    So then, your translation is the word of God?

    Is it inspired?
     
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