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Are you saying those references prove the point you are trying to Make? There is no text with them.
Most of the time the Hebrew words are not directly quoted in the NT. A few times the Scriptures themselves provide examples that would show that...
don't think you u The author can clarify his meaning when he wants. That does not give you the same freedom. All scripture is given by...
Right! If God did not intend us to translate the Word of God, why would He have included such passages in the Bible: 1. "Emmanuel" means "God...
The Scriptures themselves provide examples that would show that original-language words would be the authority, source, and standard for...
Believres, as we would not hold to baptismal regeneration!
I cover this in another of my blog posts: https://marprelate.wordpress.com/2009/12/24/babes-in-christ/ Most of the 'infant' words used in the N.T....
Here is a case in the KJV where the original Aramaic is given, but the inspired writers of Scripture give two different translations. This...
Nehemiah 8:8 So they read in the book in the law of God distinctly, and gave the sense, and caused them to understand the reading. Matthew 1:23...
John, you seem to have misunderstood the question. Both Luke 8:54 and Mark 5:41 faithfully translate the Greek text and neither of them add words...
Nope. Luke translates the Aramaic statement of Jesus, "Talitha cumi," as simply, "Maid, arise" (Luke 8:54). However, Mark adds a couple of words...
(I take liberty to start a new thread because the one was closed in which I participated and there were still things I wanted to say, especially...
I apologize to you, Harald. With all due respect, you seem to support what I conjectured. I use the NIV still. I grew up on it. I have studied...
Neal. Never did I state that anyone is lost (unconverted) "because of" using NIV. The lostness or unconvertedness of a person, whether male or...
Very interesting. So a bulk of Christians, even very conservative seminary students and professors, are lost because they use the NIV? To be...
Hi Scott. As I've mentioned elsewhere on this thread, I’m suggesting that the tragic event of an infant death could ITSELF be specific evidence...
Hi DHK, In the Old Testament, the first child was named the "firstborn" regardless of subsequent children. For Jews, "firstborn" meant the child...
