Maybe I am but once again, if you want precise understanding, I think the Calvinists may have this one right. I think you are confused in the meaning of propitiation in that you miss the fact that in a sense, God, in his own mind, is already filled with love towards us or else the plan of having Jesus die to save us would never have been started. But that is not Biblical "propitiation" which, once again, involves a judicial or appeasing sacrifice brought in the form of Christ appearing with his own blood, having been slain on our behalf and to be precise, in our place.
And, in the act of Christ doing this he is functioning as our advocate. The idea of Christ functioning in this way for the general population does not fit the context of 1John. Those who sin are under the wrath of God, he is not propitiated toward them, he has not forgiven them - until they come by faith. As humans living in time, we will never fully comprehend how an atoning sacrifice and the resulting propitiation of God can be done once, in time, and yet be for everyone, everywhere, who believes. So I don't mean to knock your view of this which agrees with the Arminian and free will Baptist view as there really is no way to adequately explain it.
This is why Calvinists, who, concerned that the truth that if your sins are atoned for then you are saved, and since this was done once in time, might cause people to be discouraged if they hear that the atonement is particular - are careful to say "Christ has died. And now if you come you will be saved" rather than Christ has died for your sins, which, technically, if you don't come to him he has not.
Dave you are confusing what Christ is, the means of appeasing God, with what Christ has done, has appeased God.
If John had wanted to say what you need him to have said then he would have used the verbal form of propitiation,
ἱλάσκομαι G2433 , but he did not do that.
1Jn 2:2 is clear if you will just read the text without a preconceived idea built in as Calvinist's have done.
1Jn 2:2 And He Himself
is G2076 (G5748) [there is your verb] the
propitiation G2434 [the means of appeasing] for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world.
God demands that the payment for sin be made once and for all. It is Christ Himself, therefore, who becomes {the propitiation}
hilasmós G2434, the means which is acceptable to God to satisfy His righteousness or His justice.
You said that "in a sense" God is already filled with love but the bible is clear that He does love the world.
God so loved the world Jn 3:16 that He sent Christ so that the world through Him might be saved Jn 3:17. God sent the son to be the propitiation for the whole world.
Dave reread your post and note that you are using propitiation in the verbal form not the noun form as John has done.
John is telling us what Christ is and you are saying what Christ has done.
If John had used the verbal form of propitiation then you would have a case but he did not so you have too read your Calvinism into the text.
In your last paragraph you say that Christ only died for those that are saved. The bible disagrees with you on that.
Heb_2:9 should taste death
for every man
1Jn_2:2 propitiation for
the whole world
1Ti_2:5-6 gave Himself a
ransom for all
1Ti_4:10
Savior of all men, especially of believers
Rom_5:6 Christ
died for the ungodly
Rom_5:8
while we were still sinners, Christ died for us
Calvinism has misunderstood the word of God and missed the truths of God.
No. Christ is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only, but for the whole world. If you are determined to add further to the word of God and say that He is the propitiation for all the people in the whole world - which the origial text does not say - then God is propitiated (verb) in respect of all the people in the whole world and they are all saved.