I have been thinking about some passages of scripture regarding faith and Jesus statements and responces to it at times. (it is something I was thinking about due to some other debate threads) Like these of the same instance : IF faith is something that God gives to men, then why was Jesus amazed that this Gentile had faith? And why did He make such a declaration about his faith being so great that none in Israel could compare to the faith he dispayed? NOTE: This included the disciples and specifically the 12 (or 11). Not to mention all the times Jesus states "oh ye of little faith". Or in these times having no faith. Why would Jesus be amazed for their unbeleif if beleif is given by the Father? What was there to be amazed about regarding it? They had faith, didn't they? And then this verse has ALWAYS stuck with me: How could He not find faith, if it is imparted to us by the Father? But if it is speaking of actionable faith, I still must inquire of those believers, why is their faith 'not' actionable if it is truely faith. This is not including other statements like; thy faith hath saved thee, thy faith hath healed thee, thy faith hath made the whole..et.. I am kinda more or less spit-balling and curious . And no I'm not trying to disprove anything but would like some input. What do ya all think?